/20 NEET PG Mock Test Mini Mock. Major Results. – NEET PG Quick Challenge 1 / 20 During an abdominal surgery, the surgeon accidentally nicks a structure that passes posterior to the epiploic foramen, which results in profuse bleeding. Which of the following structures is most likely to get injured? A) Aorta B) Hepatic artery C) IVC D) Portal vein 2 / 20 A 24-year-old male sustained a shaft of femur fracture after a road traffic accident, and internal fixation was done for the same. Two days later, he developed shortness of breath with confusion and a petechial rash. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Fat embolism B) Tension pneumothorax C) Air embolism D) ARDS 3 / 20 A 75-year-old male who is a known case of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with epistaxis, which does not respond to conservative measures and nasal packing. Which of the following arteries should be prioritised for ligation? A) Posterior ethmoidal artery B) Anterior ethmoidal artery C) Sphenopalatine artery D) Greater palatine artery 4 / 20 A 19-year-old boy presented to the OPD with shoulder pain. He had been training in the gym and had hyperextended his shoulder. On examination, the avulsion of the long head of the triceps was noticed. What is the site at which avulsion of the long head of triceps occurs? A) Shaft of the humerus B) Delotoid tuberosity of the humerus C) Infraglenoid tubercle D) Supraglenoid tubercle 5 / 20 What is the term for a single mutation in a nucleotide base pair that leads to formation of termination codon? A) Missense mutation B) Nonsense mutation C) Stop mutation D) Silent mutation 6 / 20 Which of the options aids in the transportation of fatty acids through the inner mitochondria membrane? A) Acyl carrier protein B) Carnitine C) Lecithin-Cholesterol acyltransferase D) Albumin 7 / 20 A patient is diagnosed with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and requires prophylaxis for the same. Which of the following drugs is appropriate for this patient? A) IV adenosine B) IV esmolol C) Oral phenytoin D) Oral verapamil 8 / 20 A patient presents with long limbs and ectopia lentis. His arm span is found to be greater than his height. Marfan syndrome is suspected. Which of the following gene defects is most likely responsible? A) PLOD1 B) Elastin C) Fibrillin D) COLA1 9 / 20 During eversion of the foot, which of the following ligaments is most likely to be injured? A) Anterior talofibular B) Deltoid ligament C) Posterior talofibular D) Calcaneofibular 10 / 20 Which of the following enzyme activities can be estimated in red blood cells to diagnose vitamin B2 deficiency? A) Transketolase B) Glutathione reductase C) Kynureninase D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase 11 / 20 Upon the delivery of a term new born, a thorough examination of the umbilical cord reveals crucial information. What are the essential components of a healthy umbilical cord? A) 2 arteries and 1 vein B) 2 veins and 1 artery C) 1 vein and 1 artery D) 2 veins and 2 arteries 12 / 20 Which laboratory test is commonly used to confirm the diagnosis of rotavirus-induced diarrhoea? A) Antigen detection in the stool sample B) Antigen detection in blood C) Antibody detection in serum D) Light microscopy of stool specimen 13 / 20 In a patient presenting with fever and a positive filarial antigen test, what should be the next appropriate step in management? A) Bone marrow biopsy B) DEC provocation test C) Detection of microfilariae in the blood smear D) Ultrasound of the scrotum 14 / 20 A 2-year-old child is brought to the emergency room with a generalised seizure following a high-grade fever. What is the first-line drug of choice for seizure control in this setting? A) Diazepam B) Ethosuximide C) Valproate D) Phenytoin 15 / 20 Which of the following statements regarding orbital cellulitis is true? A) Ethmoidal sinusitis is the most common source of infection in all age groups B) Topical broad-spectrum antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment C) The inflammation is restricted anterior to the orbital wall D) Patients characteristically present with proptosis, blurring of vision, normal pupillary and ocular movements 16 / 20 A female patient with HIV infection (CD4 count 150 cells/mm³) was newly diagnosed with rifampicin-resistant tuberculosis. What anti-tubercular treatment regimen should be initiated, and which HIV-related complication should you look out for? A) Isoniazid, levofloxacin, ethambutol, clarithromycin - QT prolongation B) Isoniazid, levofloxacin, ethambutol, pyrazonamide - hepatotoxicity C) Isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide - optic neuritis D) BPaLM regimen - IRIS 17 / 20 In the Pritchard regimen for the management of eclampsia, what is the loading dose of magnesium sulfate? A) 10 B) 14 C) 4 D) 20 18 / 20 What is the mechanism of renal calculi formation in a patient on Hydrochlorothiazide? A) Increased calcium excretion B) Decreased calcium excretion C) Increased oxalate absorption D) Decreased citrate excretion 19 / 20 A boy presents with fever and chills. A rapid diagnostic test detects the HRP-2 antigen. Which Plasmodium species is most likely responsible for the infection? A) Plasmodium falciparum B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium malariae D) Plasmodium ovale 20 / 20 A patient with tumour lysis syndrome has elevated uric acid levels. What is the mechanism of action of pegloticase? A) Oxidises uric acid B) Hydrolyses uric acid C) Inhibits xanthine oxidase D) Inhibits URAT-1 transporters in the kidney NameEmailPhone Number Your score is 0% Restart Test
