Acute Inflammation: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Acute inflammation is a fundamental pathological response that protects the body against harmful stimuli. It plays a critical role in removing injurious agents and initiating tissue repair, and supporting recovery and wound healing.
For those in the healthcare field or aspiring medical professionals, gaining a clear understanding of the causes, symptoms, and treatment of acute inflammation is essential for delivering effective patient care and doing well in exams. Keep reading to know more.
What is Acute Inflammation?
Acute inflammation is the body’s immediate protective response to injury or infection, marked by redness, swelling, and pain. It helps eliminate harmful agents and initiates tissue healing.
Acute inflammation is a direct and adaptive reaction of the body to harm, infection, or tissue damage, and is commonly characterised by the typical features of redness, swelling, and pain. It is the initial defence against harmful stimuli, such as pathogenic microorganisms and chemical irritants.
This response is triggered when the immune system releases pro-inflammatory cytokines and other mediators that rapidly localise to the affected site to eliminate the injurious agent and initiate tissue repair and healing.
What are the Causes Of Acute Inflammation?
Acute inflammation can be triggered by physical injuries, chemical exposure, infections, or allergens, all of which cause tissue damage and activate the immune response.
Acute inflammation can arise as a result of any factor leading to tissue damage or cell injury. These causes may be classified into physical, chemical and biological agents. Physical causes involve trauma like cuts, burns or insect bites. Chemical causes involve exposure to toxic substances, drugs, or environmental pollutants. Biological causes include infections from microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites.
Additionally, others can be allergic, such as to certain foods, environmental influences, or animal contact. This leads to the excessive activation of the immune system and the development of acute inflammation.
What are the Risk Factors of Acute Inflammation?
The typical risk factors of acute inflammation are infections, physical trauma, tissue damage, chemical irritants, immune response, and internal irritants that may trigger or intensify the inflammatory process.
Acute inflammation is a temporary immune response to sudden tissue damage or exposure to pathogens. It is a defence process that prevents harm and promotes healing and is clinically characterised by the presence of redness, heat, swelling, and pain.
Below are some common risk factors associated with acute inflammation:
Infections
Invasion by pathogenic microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi can activate the immune system, leading to an acute inflammatory response aimed at eliminating the infectious agents.
Physical Trauma
Any form of physical injury, including cuts, burns, fractures, sprains, frostbite, or penetration of foreign bodies (e.g., splinters), may cause immediate tissue damage, triggering inflammation.
Tissue Damage/Necrosis
Cell death caused by ischemia (reduced blood supply), hypoxia, or direct physical injury leads to the release of intracellular components, which act as inflammatory signals.
Chemical Irritants
The tissues may be damaged as a result of exposure to dangerous chemicals, toxins, acids or environmental pollutants and may trigger an inflammatory cascade.
Immune Reactions
Even without direct injury or infection, hypersensitivity reactions (allergies) and autoimmune responses can stimulate inappropriate or excessive inflammatory activity.
Internal Irritants
Dead tissue, immune complexes, or substances produced within the body can act as irritants and keep inflammation active in a specific area.
What are the Symptoms of Acute Inflammation?
Acute inflammation symptoms are identified by five classical signs, such as redness, swelling, heat, pain, and loss of function, each reflecting underlying physiological changes in the body.
Acute inflammation is characterised by 5 classical clinical signs, each reflecting underlying physiological changes:
Redness (Rubor): This happens because of the vasodilation and the raised blood flow (hyperemia) in the affected region, giving it a visibly red appearance.
Swelling (Tumour): Arises from an excess accumulation of fluid in the body tissues known as oedema, characterised by the increased permeability of the blood vessels.
Heat (Calor): Resulting from an increase in blood flow and the metabolism rate at the site of inflammation, leading to an elevation of the local temperature.
Pain (Dolour): Occurs due to the discharge of inflammatory mediators like prostaglandins and bradykinin, which stimulate nerve endings, resulting in tenderness, throbbing, or burning sensations.
Loss of Function (Functio Laesa): Indicates partial or total impairment of functionality caused by pain, swelling, and structural damage.
How is Acute Inflammation Diagnosed?
Diagnosis involves a combination of medical history, physical examination, and diagnostic tests such as blood investigations and imaging to confirm inflammation and identify its cause.
Diagnosis of acute inflammation is a mix of clinical assessment, physical examination, and pertinent diagnostic studies. Upon examining the patient’s medical history, recent trauma, and medications, the doctor performs a complete physical examination to assess the 5 classical signs of acute inflammation: redness, swelling, heat, pain, and loss of function.
Depending on the severity and nature of symptoms, other diagnostic tests can be prescribed, such as blood tests, allergy tests, ultrasound, CT (computed tomography) scans, MRI (magnetic resonance imaging), or biopsy.
The laboratory results tend to show increased levels of inflammatory markers, including C-reactive protein (CRP), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and plasma viscosity (PV). After considering every clinical and diagnostic evidence, the doctor makes the diagnosis and develops a treatment plan.
What are The Treatment Options for Acute Inflammation?
Treatment focuses on relieving symptoms and addressing the underlying cause through medications like NSAIDs and corticosteroids, along with supportive care when needed.
Acute inflammation is treated depending on the cause. A doctor may focus on eliminating the root cause, managing the symptoms, or sometimes both at the same time.
For example, if the inflammation is due to a bacterial or fungal infection, the doctor may prescribe antibiotics or antifungal medications. Some of the typical treatments that specifically address inflammation include:
Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the most common in relieving pain, swelling, fever, and other discomforts related to inflammation. Nevertheless, they fail to treat the underlying cause of the condition.
These drugs act by inhibiting some body enzymes which encourage inflammation. Common examples include naproxen, ibuprofen, and aspirin. They can be readily obtained over the counter and online. Nevertheless, they should be used with caution and under the guidance of a doctor or pharmacist, as they may cause side effects.
Acetaminophen, commonly known as paracetamol or Tylenol, helps reduce pain but does not directly decrease inflammation. This allows the inflammatory process to continue supporting the body’s natural healing.
Corticosteroids
Corticosteroids comprise a group of steroid hormones, such as cortisol, which affect the body functions associated with inflammation. They are used to manage conditions such as asthma, allergic reactions, dermatitis, IBD, systemic lupus, hepatitis, arthritis, and temporal arteritis.
These medications are available in different types, including tablets, injections, inhalers, creams, and ointments. However, the prolonged use of these medications poses certain health risks. Therefore, it is advisable that they are taken on prescription.
Immunosuppressants and Chronic Inflammation Management
When inflammation becomes chronic, treatment approaches may differ based on the condition. Some drugs are designed to inhibit the immune system’s response. These medications are useful in managing symptoms of conditions such as psoriasis and rheumatoid arthritis, as well as other autoimmune diseases.
But since they suppress the immune system, they may render the body more susceptible to infections. Immunosuppressant drugs are also essential for individuals who have undergone organ transplant surgery, as they prevent the body from rejecting the new organ. Such individuals need to take extra precautions to avoid infections.
FAQs about Acute Inflammation
What are 5 symptoms of acute inflammation?
Acute inflammation is clinically defined as the presence of five signs: rubor (redness), calor (heat), tumour (swelling), dolour (pain), and functio laesa (loss of function).
What is a common cause of acute inflammation?
Acute inflammation usually happens as a natural response of the body to infection or injury. For example, if you come down with a cold or cut your finger, your body triggers an inflammatory response that directs immune cells to the injury site to start the healing process.
What are the 4 stages or cellular events of acute inflammation?
The four stages of inflammation are: initiation (alarm bells ring), amplification (immune cells rush in), destruction (removal of damaged tissue and pathogens), and resolution (healing and restoring balance). This is the natural process of your body reacting to some injury or infection.
What does acute inflammation feel like?
Acute inflammation is typically painful, reddish, swollen, and warm with or without stiffness or restricted motion in the area. It may be uncomfortable or intense, but it is typically short-term and improves within a few days as healing occurs.
How long is acute inflammation?
Acute inflammation is usually temporary, lasting a few days. When a wound becomes warm, red, painful, and swollen, it is a clear sign that inflammation is occurring.
What is the difference between acute and chronic inflammation?
Acute inflammation is an immediate, temporary reaction to trauma or disease (takes days), which is marked by redness, swelling, and pain in order to facilitate healing.
Chronic inflammation, on the other hand, is a slow, long-term response that can last months or years, often occurring when the immune system fails to eliminate a threat, leading to tissue damage and diseases such as diabetes or arthritis.
Are antibiotics always needed for acute inflammation?
No, acute inflammation does not necessarily require antibiotics. Antibiotics are only used to treat inflammation that is a result of bacterial infections.
Can acute inflammation turn into chronic inflammation?
Yes, acute inflammation can turn into chronic inflammation if the initial trigger is not resolved, if the immune response fails to shut off, or if there are repeated episodes of acute inflammation. While acute inflammation lasts a few days, this transition occurs when the immune system continues to send white blood cells to the site, causing damage over months or years.
Does exercise help with acute inflammation?
Yes, exercise is an effective, non-pharmacological agent which can be used to control inflammation, but its impact relies on its intensity and regularity.
Moderate-intensity exercise is generally anti-inflammatory, reducing systemic inflammatory markers like CRP, whereas intense, prolonged exercise can temporarily increase inflammation.
What foods can reduce acute inflammation?
To reduce acute inflammation, focus on a diet rich in omega-3 fatty acids, antioxidants, and polyphenols, such as fatty fish, berries, leafy greens, nuts, and olive oil. Key anti-inflammatory foods include turmeric, avocados, green tea, peppers, and dark chocolate. A Mediterranean-style diet is highly effective for reducing inflammation.
Conclusion
Acute inflammation pathology is a fundamental concept in medicine, representing the body’s immediate and protective response to injury, infection, or harmful stimuli. Fortunately, all symptoms can be managed effectively with appropriate diagnoses and timely interventions, which may vary depending on the cause.
For every NEET PG aspirant, developing a strong understanding of topics such as acute inflammation and related pathological processes is vital for exam preparation and clinical decisions in real-world practice.
DocTutorials will assist you in this journey through expert-guided video lectures, Quick Revision Programs (QRPs), and high-yield study materials, all designed to help you pass your exams and emerge as a successful future medical professional. Learn more about Doctutorials’ NEET PG course and take a step towards your dream!
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The NEET PG 2027 is a critical milestone for MBBS graduates across India who are aiming to secure a seat in MD, MS, or PG Diploma courses. Conducted every year by the National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS), this exam demands focus, consistency, and the right study materials.
If you are planning to take the NEET PG Exam 2027, starting early gives you a massive advantage. To give your preparation a solid structure, check out the DocTutorials NEET PG Online Powerpack and NEET PG Power Pack. These carefully designed packages offer high-yield study materials and mock tests that mirror the real exam, helping you stay ahead of the competition.
Here is a complete, easy-to-read guide for your 2027 prep journey.
Who Can Apply for NEET PG 2027?
Before you start worrying about the syllabus, make sure you meet the basic eligibility criteria set by NBEMS:
Medical Degree: You must have a recognized MBBS degree or a provisional pass certificate approved by the National Medical Commission (NMC).
Valid Registration: A permanent or provisional registration certificate from the NMC or your respective State Medical Council is mandatory.
Internship Cut-off: You must complete your compulsory one-year rotatory internship on or before the cut-off date. Based on recent trends, this is usually set between July and September of the exam year.
Age Limit: There is no upper age limit to apply for the exam.
NEET Post Graduate 2027 Important Dates
While the NBEMS has not released the official 2027 calendar yet, we can easily predict the timeline by looking at the NEET PG 2026 schedule. In 2026, the application process began in early July, with the exam taking place on August 30.
Here are the tentative dates for 2027 to help you plan your revision strategy:
Important Event
Expected Timeline for 2027
Official Information Bulletin Release
Early July 2027
Online Application Form Starts
Early July 2027
Last Date to Apply Online
Last Week of July 2027
Admit Card Download
Mid-August 2027
NEET PG Exam Date
Late August 2027
How to Apply for NEET Post Graduate 2027?
The entire application process is conducted online. When the registration window opens, follow these simple steps to fill out your form without any stress:
New Registration: Visit the official NBEMS website (natboard.edu.in). Click on the “NEET-PG” tab and select “New Registration.” Fill in your basic details like name, date of birth, mobile number, and email ID to generate your User ID and Password.
Complete the Form: Log in using your new credentials. Fill in your personal details, academic history, and MBBS marks accurately.
Select Test City: Choose your preferred states and cities for the exam. Remember, NBEMS has clarified that city allocation is not always on a first-come, first-served basis, but applying early is still a good habit.
Upload Documents: Upload scanned copies of your passport-size photograph, signature, and left thumb impression. Make sure they meet the official size guidelines.
Pay the Application Fee: Pay the required fee online using UPI, net banking, or a card. Finally, submit the form and print the confirmation page for your records.
Documents You Need to Keep Ready
Keep digital copies of the following documents in a separate folder on your laptop before you begin the application:
Recent passport-size photograph (clear, not older than 3 months)
Scanned signature and left thumb impression
Valid Photo ID proof (Aadhar Card, PAN Card, Voter ID, Passport, or Driving License)
MBBS Degree or Provisional Pass Certificate
NMC or State Medical Council Registration Certificate
Internship Completion Certificate
Exam Fee Category Wise
The application fee must be paid online during the form submission. Here is the fee structure based on recent examination cycles:
Student Category
Expected Application Fee
General, OBC, and EWS
₹ 3,500
SC, ST, and PwD
₹ 2,500
Note: The fee is usually non-refundable. Double-check all entered information, especially your category and contact details, before hitting the payment button.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
1. What is the expected date for the NEET PG 2027 exam?
Based on the 2026 schedule, the exam is expected to be held in late August 2027.
2. What is the official website for NEET PG registration?
All official updates, registration, and admit cards are handled at natboard.edu.in.
3. Is there an age limit for appearing in NEET PG?
No, there is no upper age limit for candidates writing the exam.
4. How many times can I attempt the NEET PG exam?
There is no cap on the number of attempts. You can take the exam as many times as you need.
5. What is the mode of the examination?
The exam is a Computer-Based Test (CBT) conducted in a single shift.
6. Can I apply if I haven’t finished my internship yet?
Yes, as long as you complete your mandatory one-year internship before the official cut-off date (usually around August or September of the exam year).
7. How are the test centers allocated?
You will be asked to provide your preferences. However, center allocation is done by NBEMS, and early application does not guarantee your first-choice city.
8. Can I change my category or exam city after final submission?
Usually, NBEMS provides a short “edit window,” but critical fields like your name, nationality, test city, and email ID cannot be changed. Fill out the form carefully!
9. What happens if I upload an unclear photograph?
NBEMS has strict image guidelines. If your photo or signature is blurry or edited, your application may be rejected.
10. How long does it take for the results to be announced?
Results are typically declared within 3 to 4 weeks after the exam date.
The Smart Way to Secure Your Seat
The secret to cracking this exam isn’t just studying harder, it’s studying smarter.You need to know exactly which high-yield topics to focus on, how to tackle clinical scenarios, and how to manage your time during the 180-question test. This is where having a structured, focused guide makes all the difference.
Instead of getting lost in a sea of notes, checking out the DocTutorials NEET PG Online Power Pack or the NEET PG Power Pack can give your daily routine a clear, actionable direction. They provide you with concise video lectures, targeted test series, and practical mock exams that actually reflect current paper patterns. It’s about building confidence, not just collecting study materials.
Choose Your Winning Blueprint: DocTutorials Elite Prep Plans
Option 1: NEET PG Online Live Power Pack
Best for: Students who need strict discipline, real-time mentorship, and a structured daily routine.
Discipline & Habit Building: Follow a pre-defined academic calendar with 100+ interactive live sessions to ensure you finish the syllabus long before exam day.
The “No-Excuses” Testing Window: Take 3 daily bite-sized tests. They are only available during a specific window. This builds ultimate consistency.
Direct Access to Elite Mentors: Never stay stuck. Get real-time doubt clearing during live classes and VIP access to dedicated WhatsApp/Telegram groups for daily strategic guidance.
Ultra-High-Yield Final Revision: Walk into the exam with confidence using our C.P.R. (Critical Points Recap) classes 1–2 months before the exam, designed to lock in highly volatile facts.
Option 2: NEET PG Power Pack
Best for: Autonomous learners who want ultimate flexibility and a comprehensive, on-demand ecosystem.
Study on Your Exact Terms: Master all 19 subjects at your own pace with our all-new, crisp V6 Syllabus Videos and 240+ Quick Revision Program (QRP) videos.
Target & Destroy Weaknesses: Utilize a massive 12,000+ clinical-case-based QBank. Create custom modules tailored to your weakest subjects and use detailed analytics to track your exact progress.
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Take a breath, map out your months, and equip yourself with tools that genuinely make your journey smoother. Explore DocTutorials Plans Today.
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Preparing for NEET PG isn’t just about mastering concepts. It’s also about understanding the exam pattern and recognizing frequently asked topics. One of the smartest strategies to boost your preparation is practicing Previous Year Questions (PYQs).
In this article, we bring you a complete subject-wise collection of NEET PG PYQs with detailed answers, designed to support aspirants at every stage of their journey.
Here’s how this resource can help you:
Gain clarity on the exam pattern and recurring question trends
Pinpoint high-yield topics across each subject
Get comfortable with a real exam-like format
Sharpen your speed, accuracy, and confidence
Strengthen weaker areas with focused subject-wise practice
Whether you’re in the early stages of preparation or revising closer to the exam, these NEET PG 2025 PYQs with solutions will give you an extra edge and help maximize your performance on exam day.
Explore How Past Years’ Questions Can Improve Your Preparation
Preparation for the NEET PG examination requires a structured approach, and the referral of previous year question papers. These papers will give a first-hand account of the exam pattern, the level of difficulty, and the topics most frequently asked in it, making it valuable to those who have to start preparing afresh.
In addition, going through NEET PG previous year questionpapers regularly can also assist you in revising the essential concepts and evaluating the level of your progress. You can master your performance as well as improve your knowledge by using original past papers and thus develop self-confidence before the real exam.
Keep reading for a detailed insight into the NEET PG previous year question (PYQ) papers and how studying them can benefit you.
What are the Benefits of Solving NEET PG Previous Year Question Papers?
Here is how going through the NEET PG PYQs can be a game-changer for your NEET preparation:
Improves Accuracy and Speed
Regular practice with the NEET PG previous year question book will help you develop a more precise approach to answering questions. You also get to know how to be careful with making mistakes and improve certain problem-solving skills. This, in the long run, helps you react fast and with confidence, which is the key factor in getting a high score.
Helps in Self-Assessment
NEET PG previous question papers are an excellent tool to ascertain your levels of improvement. They offer a clear overview of the level of your preparation because they tell you about your strong points and about the aspects where you need to improve.
Such specific feedback allows you to work more efficiently. By identifying the topics you are weaker in and working on them consistently, you will enhance both your subject knowledge and confidence.
Builds Familiarity with Question Types
Solving previous papers introduces you to the different formats and styles of questions that commonly appear in the exam. This includes repeated topics and common question trends, giving you an edge on what to expect.
Attempting these papers in full-length mock test settings helps simulate the actual exam environment, allowing you to build the stamina and mental readiness required for test day.
Enhances Time Management
With just 210 minutes to tackle 200 questions, you will have a little over one minute per question. This makes time management a critical skill. Practising with previous NEET PG question papers enables one to develop the habit of working efficiently under pressure.
Through consistent exposure to timed question-solving, you learn to balance speed with precision, ensuring better use of the allotted time.
Acts as an Effective Revision Tool
Working through previous year papers is a powerful method of revising the syllabus. These papers help consolidate what has already been studied by applying knowledge to practical questions.
Many resources offer books and PDFs containing past NEET PG questions, making it easy to integrate this step into a revision plan. Regular practice not only sharpens memory but also boosts overall confidence ahead of the exam.
How to Effectively Solve Previous Year’s Question Papers for NEET PG 2026?
Approaching NEET PG previous year question papers with a clear plan can significantly enhance your preparation. Follow these simplified yet effective steps to make the most out of them:
Incorporate a Paper into Your Daily Schedule
Make it a habit to solve at least one previous year’s question paper each day as part of your regular study timetable. This routine helps build consistency and exam readiness.
Use Past Year Papers to Spot Recurring Topics
Carefully go through previous years’ questions to identify common topics and concepts that are frequently tested. This helps you focus your efforts on areas that carry more weight in the exam.
Practice MCQs After Completing Each Topic
Once you have studied a chapter, reinforce your understanding by solving multiple-choice questions from subject-wise books. This step ensures you are applying what you have learnt in a test-like format.
Identify Key Areas Through Paper Analysis
Analysing past papers allows you to detect which topics appear most often, guiding you to prioritise them during your revision.
Aim to Solve at Least Ten Years’ Worth of Papers
Working through a decade’s worth of previous NEET PG question papers ensures extensive coverage of the syllabus and familiarises you with a wide range of question types and patterns.
What is the Marks Distribution in NEET PG Previous Year Question Papers?
The following is the marks distribution pattern as per the last year NEET PG question paper:
Correct Answer
+4
Incorrect Answer
-1
No response
0
Subject-wise marks distribution pattern is given below:
Section of Question Paper
Number of Subjects
Average Number of Questions
Average Number of Marks
Part A (Pre-Clinical)
3
50
200
Part B (Para-Clinical)
5
100
400
Part C (Clinical)
6
150
600
What is the Subject-Wise Distribution of Questions in the NEET PG Exam?
The table below is an overview of how questions are distributed across different subjects in the NEET PG examination:
Parts in the Question Paper
Name of the Subjects
Number of Questions
Part A (Pre-Clinical)
Microbiology
20
Pharmacology
20
Physiology
17
Anatomy
17
Biochemistry
16
Part B (Para-Clinical)
General Surgery includes Orthopaedics, Anaesthesia, and Radiodiagnosis
45
General Medicine including Dermatology and Venereology
45
Social and Preventive Medicine
25
Pathology
25
Forensic Medicine
10
Part C (Clinical)
Obstetrics and Gynaecology
30
ENT
10
Paediatrics
10
Ophthalmology
10
FAQs About NEET PG Previous Year Question Papers
Will old NEET PG exam questions be repeated?
Yes, certain questions, mostly ones with an emphasis on a fundamental idea or clinical scenario, can repeat in a variant with minor changes. Approximately 10 to 15 questions are repeated yearly in some rephrased way.
How many years of NEET PG papers should an individual solve?
It is advisable to practise at least the last 10 years of question papers to cover a broad range of topics and question styles.
When should I begin to do last year’s question papers?
You will be able to solve them after studying the basics of major subjects. A daily training combined with your studies is the best approach.
Is solving NEET Previous Year’s papers sufficient to score well in the NEET PG exam?
Solving NEET PG previous year question papers significantly improves exam understanding and performance. However, PYQs alone are not sufficient to score high. Candidates must also study standard textbooks, revision notes, updated guidelines, and practice mock tests to build strong concepts and clinical reasoning.
How many questions in NEET PG come from past years’ papers?
On average, around 10–15 questions in the NEET PG exam are directly or indirectly based on previous years’ questions. Exact repetitions are rare; however, similar concepts, clinical scenarios, and frequently tested topics often reappear with slight modifications.
Should PYQs be studied topic-wise or year-wise?
Topic-wise PYQ practice is ideal during the initial phase of preparation as it helps strengthen conceptual clarity and subject understanding. Year-wise PYQs are more beneficial closer to the exam, as they simulate real exam conditions and improve time management and accuracy.
When should NEET PG PYQs be started during preparation?
NEET PG PYQs should be started early in the preparation phase, preferably after completing each subject. Early exposure helps reinforce concepts, identify weak areas, and build exam-oriented thinking. PYQs should be revised multiple times before the final exam.
Are online PYQ question banks reliable for NEET PG?
Most reputed online PYQ question banks are reliable and widely used by NEET PG aspirants. However, candidates should ensure that the answers and explanations are updated according to the latest exam pattern, syllabus changes, and current clinical guidelines.
Are subject-wise PYQs better than mixed practice?
Subject-wise PYQs are more effective during the learning phase, as they help consolidate concepts within a subject. Mixed or year-wise PYQ practice is better during revision, as it enhances integration of subjects and prepares candidates for real exam scenarios.
Can PYQs replace mock tests for NEET PG?
PYQs cannot replace mock tests for NEET PG preparation. However, they play a complementary role by strengthening conceptual clarity and familiarity with exam trends. Mock tests are essential for improving speed, accuracy, time management, and handling exam pressure.
Conclusion
NEET PG previous year question papers are an essential component in a proper preparation strategy to ace this highly competitive NEET PG exam. These papers not only assist you in comprehending the pattern and level of the difficulty but also assist in honing your precision, swiftness, and time balance.
Solving past papers frequently can help you improve not only your problem-solving skills but also track your general progress. Therefore, to enhance the quality of your preparation, resort to reliable sources such as DocTutorials, where the best variety of materials, explanations, and structured guidance provided by the experts cater to NEET PG examinees.
Utilise such resources and remain persistent in your work. Start solving NEET PG previous year question papers today and take a confident step towards achieving your goal. Join DocTutorials and explore our NEET PG course today.
NEET PG 2025 Anatomy Previous Year Questions
Question 1
Non-clinical question
1. Which of the following nerves does not pass through the marked structure?
Options:
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Vagus nerve
Spinal accessory nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
Correct Answer: D) Hypoglossal nerve
Question 2
Non-clinical question
The persistence of which of the following arch arteries is responsible for the congenital anomaly marked in the image given below?
Options:
6th left pharyngeal arch artery
6th right pharyngeal arch artery
4th left pharyngeal arch artery
4th right pharyngeal arch artery
Correct Answer: A) 6th left pharyngeal arch artery
Question 3
Non-clinical question
Upon the delivery of a term new born, a thorough examination of the umbilical cord reveals crucial information. What are the essential components of a healthy umbilical cord?
Options:
2 arteries and 1 vein
2 veins and 1 artery
1 vein and 1 artery
2 veins and 2 arteries
Correct Answer: A) 2 arteries and 1 vein
Question 4
clinical question
A woman presented with complaints of loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the thigh and was diagnosed with meralgia paresthetica. The nerve involved in this condition arises from which of the following nerve roots?
Options:
T12 and L1
L1 and L2
L2 and L3
L2, L3, and L4
Correct Answer: C) L2 and L3
Question 5
Non-clinical question
The epithelium depicted in the image below is seen in which of the following structures?
Options:
Esophagus
Ureter
Trachea
Duodenum
Correct Answer: B) Ureter
Question 6
Non-clinical question
A 19-year-old boy presented to the OPD with shoulder pain. He had been training in the gym and had hyperextended his shoulder. On examination, the avulsion of the long head of the triceps was noticed. What is the site at which avulsion of the long head of triceps occurs?
Options:
Shaft of the humerus
Delotoid tuberosity of the humerus
Infraglenoid tubercle
Supraglenoid tubercle
Correct Answer: C) Infraglenoid tubercle
Question 7
Non-clinical question
Identify the marked structure
Options:
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Pyriform sinus
Valllecula
Correct Answer: C) Pyriform sinus
Question 8
Non-clinical question
A 75-year-old male who is a known case of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with epistaxis, which does not respond to conservative measures and nasal packing. Which of the following arteries should be prioritised for ligation?
Options:
Posterior ethmoidal artery
Anterior ethmoidal artery
Sphenopalatine artery
Greater palatine artery
Correct Answer: C) Sphenopalatine artery
Question 9
Non-clinical question
The marked structure does not have which of the following components?
Options:
GVE
GVA
GSA
GSE
Correct Answer: D) GSE
Question 10
Non-clinical question
Which pair of nerves supplies the muscles marked A and B, respectively?
Options:
Nerve to the mylohyoid and the facial nerve
Facial nerve and spinal accessory nerve
Spinal accessory nerve and facial nerve
Ansa cervicalis and hypoglossal nerve
Question 11
Non-clinical question
During eversion of the foot, which of the following ligaments is most likely to be injured?
Options:
Anterior talofibular
Deltoid ligament
Posterior talofibular
Calcaneofibular
Correct Answer: B) Deltoid ligament
Question 12
Clinical question
During an abdominal surgery, the surgeon accidentally nicks a structure that passes posterior to the epiploic foramen, which results in profuse bleeding. Which of the following structures is most likely to get injured?
Options:
Aorta
Hepatic artery
IVC
Portal vein
Correct Answer: C) IVC
Question 13
Non-clinical question
Identify the marked structure that passes inferior to the posterior belly of the digastric and can be seen after submandibular gland resection.
Options:
Facial artery
Hypoglossal nerve
Marginal mandibular nerve
Facial nerve
Correct Answer: B) Hypoglossal nerve
Question 14
Non-clinical question
A patient presents with cancer near the anal opening. Which of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to be involved in this patient?
Options:
Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Deep inguinal lymph nodes
Internal iliac lymph nodes
External iliac lymph nodes
Correct Answer: A) Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Question 15
Non-clinical question
A patient presents with muscle wasting, reduced tone, and weakness of the right hand. Fine motor movements, such as dough kneading, are also affected. Which of the following structures is most likely to be impaired in this patient?
Options:
Anterior grey horn of the spinal cord in the cervical region
Internal capsule
Corticospinal tract in the cervical region
Brainstem
Correct Answer: A) Anterior grey horn of the spinal cord in the cervical region
NEET PG 2025 Anaesthesia Previous Year Questions
Question 1
Clinical question
Following administration of a muscle relaxant, the patient develops erythema, flushing, and a drop in blood pressure. Which of the following agents is most likely responsible?
Options:
A) Vecuronium
B) Atracurium
C) Cis-atracurium
D) Pancuronium
Correct answer: B) Atracurium
Question 2
Clinical question
A 35-year-old male undergoing abdominal surgery under general anaesthesia develops
sudden generalised muscle rigidity, rapid increase in body temperature, and tachycardia shortly
after administration of sevoflurane and succinylcholine. His end-tidal CO₂ is rising despite
controlled ventilation. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment?
Options:
A) Dantrolene
B) Paracetamol
C) Calcium chloride
D) Propranolol
Correct answer: A) Dantrolene
NEET PG 2025 BiochemistryPrevious Year Questions
Question 1
Clinical question
A labourer was stuck in a tunnel for 5 days without food. Which of the following processes serves as the primary source of energy for the brain during this time?
Options:
A) Glycogenolysis
B) Gluconeogenesis
C) Ketogenesis
D) Lipolysis
Correct answer: C) Ketogenesis
Question 2
Clinical question
Under an experimental condition, blood glucose level is spiked to 2-3 times the normal level and is sustained at this level. Which of the following describes the pattern of insulin levels in the blood?
Options:
A) Sudden rise in insulin followed by a slower, sustained drop in insulin
B) Continuous increase in insulin until a maximum concentration
C) Increase in insulin followed by a decrease below the baseline level
D) Sudden initial increase followed by a delayed but higher and continuing increase in insulin levels
Correct answer: D) Sudden initial increase followed by a delayed but higher and continuing increase in insulin levels
Question 3
Non-clinical question
A patient presents with ataxia, anaemia, and sensory neuropathy. Laboratory tests show elevated total homocysteine and methylmalonic acid levels. Production of which of the following amino acids could be affected?
Options:
A) Tyrosine
B) Glutamine
C) Cysteine
D) Methionine
Correct answer: D) Methionine
Question 4
Clinical question
A patient on long-term hydrochlorothiazide presents with features of heart failure,
horizontal nystagmus, and peripheral neuropathy. There is no history of alcohol use or smoking. Which of the following deficiencies can cause this presentation?
Options:
A) Thiamine
B) Selenium C) Zinc
D) Vitamin B12
Correct answer: A) Thiamine
Question 5
Clinical question
A 10-year-old boy presents with coarse facial features, organomegaly, corneal opacity, and peripheral neuropathy. A deficiency of the enzyme alpha-L-iduronidase is found. Which of the following is accumulated in this condition?
Options:
A) Dermatan sulfate and heparan sulfate
B) Dermatan sulfate
C) Keratan sulfate and chondroitin sulfate
D) Sphingolipids
Correct answer: A) Dermatan sulfate and heparan sulfate
Question 6
Clinical question
A 10-year-old presents with multiple freckles and hyperpigmentation that worsens with sun exposure. Examination reveals two basal cell carcinomas on the face. Which of the following DNA repair mechanisms is defective?
Options:
A) Base excision repair
B) Nucleotide excision repair
C) DNA mismatch repair
D) DNA double-strand break repair
Correct answer: B) Nucleotide excision repair
Question 7
Clinical question
A 10-month-old boy presents with recurrent oral lesions and respiratory infections. Laboratory investigations reveal reduced B cell, T cell, and NK cell counts along with reduced adenosine
deaminase levels. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Agammaglobulinemia
B) Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) Severe combined immunodeficiency
Correct answer: D) Severe combined immunodeficiency
Question 8
Non-clinical question
Which of the following molecular diagnostic tests is useful in syndromic conditions like meningitis?
Options:
A) Uniplex PCR
B) Multiplex PCR
C) Nested PCR
D) Arbitrarily primed PCR
Correct answer: B) Multiplex PCR
Question 9
Non-clinical question
A frameshift mutation was introduced into the coding sequence of an mRNA. If this occurs at the 4th position in an mRNA with 900 nucleotides, which of the following is most likely to happen?
Options:
A) No biological change
B) Partial loss of protein and function
C) Complete loss of protein and function
D) No change in function as it will be removed in post-translational modification
Correct answer: C) Complete loss of protein and function
Question 10
Clinical question
A 40-year-old woman who underwent ileal resection presents with features of anaemia despite a balanced diet. Her RBC count is 2.8 million/mm³, and serum iron is 164 mcg/dL. Which of the
following is most likely to be found in her?
Options:
A) Iron deficiency anaemia
B) Megaloblastic anaemia
C) Aplastic anaemia
D) Hemolytic anaemia
Correct answer: Megaloblastic anaemia
Question 11
Non-clinical question
Which of the following, if given in large volumes, can lead to hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis?
Options:
A) Dextrose in NS (DNS)
B) Normal saline
C) 5% dextrose in water
D) Ringer’s lactate
Correct answer: B) Normal saline
Question 12
Clinical question
A patient presents with bleeding symptoms and factor 9 deficiency that resolve after
administration of a vitamin K injection. Which of the following is the most likely underlying condition?
Options:
A) Classical haemophilia
B) Biliary obstruction
C) Pernicious anaemia
D) Hepatitis A
Correct answer: B) Biliary obstruction
Question 13
Clinical question
A child presents with elevated concentrations of phenylalanine. Phenylalanine hydroxylase activity is found to be normal. Which of the following coenzymes, also required for tyrosine metabolism, could be deficient in this child?
Options:
A) Biopterin
B) Pyridoxal phosphate
C) Adenosylcobalamin
D) Dihydrofolic acid
Correct answer: A) Biopterin
Question 14
Clinical question:
An 8-year-old boy presents to the OPD for evaluation of a subcutaneous xanthoma on his right elbow. His father recently died of a myocardial infarction, and there is a family history of similar findings. Laboratory investigations reveal total cholesterol of 480 mg/dL, triglycerides of 146 mg/dL, and LDL cholesterol of 300 mg/dL. Which of the following types of
Familial hyperlipoproteinemias is the most likely underlying condition?
Options:
A) Type I
B) Type IIa
C) Type IIb
D) Type III
Correct answer: B) Type IIb
Question 15
Clinical Question:
A 70-year-old man presents with a fracture following trivial trauma. He also has perifollicular haemorrhages, lusterless hair, and dry skin. He is on an exclusive diet of toast and buns and has microcytic hypochromic anaemia. Which of the following enzymes is most likely affected in this patient?
Options:
A) Prolyl hydroxylase
B) ALA synthase
C) Glutathione peroxidase
D) Dihydrofolate reductase
Correct answer:A) Prolyl hydroxylase
Question 16
Clinical question:
A 7-month-old infant presents with developmental delay, seizures, and a cherry-red spot on fundoscopy. The mother has a history of an abortion at 8 weeks. Genetic testing reveals a deficiency of hexosaminidase A. Which of the following accumulates in this condition?
Options:
A) GM1 ganglioside
B) GM2 ganglioside
C) Galactocerebroside
D) Sphingolipids
Correct answer: B) GM2 ganglioside
Question 17
Clinical question:
A boy presents with orange-colored tonsils and a family history of multiple cardiovascular-related deaths. Laboratory investigations show total cholesterol of 80 mg/dL, triglycerides 146 mg/dL, HDL <5 mg/dL, and LDL 90 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Niemann-Pick disease type C
B) Tangier disease
C) Familial abetalipoproteinemia
D) Familial hyperlipoproteinemia type I
Correct answer:B) Tangier disease
NEET PG 2025 Dermatology Previous Year Questions
Question 1
Clinical Question
A 20-year-old presented with a non-progressive hypopigmented skin lesion that has been present since birth. It shows white accentuation under Wood’s lamp examination, and diascopy is inconclusive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Vitiligo
B) Nevus depigmentosus
C) Nevus anaemicus
D) Indeterminate leprosy
Correct Answer: B) Nevus depigmentosus
Question 2
Non-Clinical Question
An image shows the characteristic skin findings of phrynoderma, described as plugged keratotic papules. Which of the following should be done next?
Options:
A) Ocular examination
B) Vitamin D3 status
C) Deep tendon reflexes
D) Vitamin B12 status
Correct Answer: A) Ocular examination
Question 3
Clinical Question
A patient presents with a plaque on the face with central clearing and atrophy, and his chest X-ray demonstrates apical calcification. Which of the following can be used for the diagnosis of the underlying condition?
Options:
A) PCR
B) Mantoux test
C) Slit skin smear test
D) Probe test
Correct Answer: A) PCR
NEET PG 2025 ENT Previous Year Questions
Q.1
Clinical Question:
A 28-year-old male with a history of chronic ear discharge and hearing loss undergoes an otoscopic evaluation. The image below shows a large central perforation of the tympanic membrane with visible middle ear structures. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention for this patient?
Options:
Atticotomy
Modified radical mastoidectomy
Myringoplasty
Tympanoplasty
Correct Answer: D) Tympanoplasty
Q.2
Clinical Question:
An industrial worker presents with hearing loss. On examination, Rinne’s test was negative on the left side and positive on the right side. Weber’s test lateralized to the left side. Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA) was done with the results as shown below. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Options:
Right conductive hearing loss
Left conductive hearing loss
Right sensorineural hearing loss
Left sensorineural hearing loss
Correct Answer: B) Left conductive hearing loss
Q.3
Clinical Question:
A 12-year-old male presents with recurrent, profuse nasal bleeding and right-sided nasal obstruction. Endoscopy reveals a globular, vascular mass in the right nasal cavity occupying the posterior choanae and nasopharynx. A CT scan shows anterior bowing of the posterior wall of the maxillary sinus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
Antrochoanal polyp
Rhinoscleroma
Rhinosporidiosis
Correct Answer: A) Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
Q.4
Clinical Question:
A patient presents to the emergency department with significant nasal trauma after a fall.
Examination reveals a deviated nasal pyramid, and palpation confirms crepitus and mobility of
the nasal bones. A lateral nasal bone X-ray confirms a displaced nasal bone fracture. Which of
the following instruments is specifically designed for the closed reduction of a displaced nasal
bone fracture?
Options:
Tilley’s forceps
Luc’s forceps
Walsham forceps
Bayonet forceps
Correct Answer: C) Walsham forceps
Q.5
Clinical Question:
Following a building collapse, a male patient was brought to the emergency department with a copious amount of debris in the mouth, making endotracheal intubation impossible. The emergency procedure shown in the image was performed. Which of the following statements regarding this procedure is true?
Options:
It is used for effective ventilation for up to 6 hours
It is used to measure central venous pressure
It should be followed by a tracheostomy
The work of breathing is more than with bag-and-mask ventilation
Correct Answer: C) It should be followed by a tracheostomy
Q.6
Clinical Question:
A 3-year-old child presents to the casualty in an unresponsive state after consuming peanuts. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
Options:
Give abdominal thrusts
Give 5 back slaps
Start chest compressions
Attempt endotracheal intubation
Correct Answer: C) Start chest compressions
Q.7
Clinical Question:
A 72-year-old female smoker presents with a long history of hoarseness of voice, difficulty swallowing, and difficulty breathing. The patient was diagnosed with laryngeal cancer and underwent surgical management. The post-operative picture is shown below. Which of the following surgeries was most likely performed on the patient?
Options:
Partial laryngectomy
Total laryngectomy
Standard tracheostomy
Percutaneous tracheostomy
Correct Answer: B) Total laryngectomy
Forensic Medicine
NEET PG 2025 Forensic Medicine Previous Year Questions
Question: 1
Clinical question
A 26-year-old woman is brought dead to the emergency department. On examination, there are multiple crescentic abrasions over the sides of her neck and lower jaw, along with deep bruising of neck muscles on internal dissection during autopsy. The hyoid bone is intact, but a minor haemorrhage is seen in the strap muscles. Which of the following is the most likely cause of death?
Options:
Ligature Strangulation
Mugging
Throttling
Garroting
Correct Answer: C) Throttling
Question 2
Non-clinical question
As per the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, who is legally considered a child under the law for protection against sexual offences?
Options:
Girls under 16 years of age
All children under 16 years of age
All children under 18 years of age
Girls under 18 years of age
Correct Answer: C) All children under 18 years of age
Question 3
Non-clinical question:
Which of the following statements regarding the “Zasko phenomenon” is true?
Options:
A) It refers to the postmortem clotting of blood
B) It is used to describe the gaping of a wound along skin tension lines
C) It refers to the tendon reflex after death
D) It is used to describe the seeping of blood from wounds at the time of death
Correct Answer: C) It refers to the tendon reflex after death
Question 4
Non-clinical question
A 22-year-old male is found dead in his room. On autopsy, the stomach contents emit a strong garlic-like odour, and red-velvet discolouration of the gastric mucosa is noted, along with greyish granular material resembling pesticide powder. Which of the following is the most likely poison involved?
Options:
A) Organophosphorus compound
B) Acute arsenic poisoning
C) Aluminium phosphide
D) Carbamates
Correct Answer: B) Acute arsenic poisoning
Question 5
Clinical question
A 16-year-old girl and a 23-year-old boy undergo medical examination following allegations of rape made by the girl’s parents. The girl states the sexual act was consensual, and no injuries were found on examination. According to the law, what is the legal status of the consent in this case?
Options:
Consent is invalid as the girl is under 18 years old
No punishment since the act was consensual
No punishment since the man says he loves her and wants to marry her
Parents must prove that the act was non-consensual
Correct Answer: A) Consent is invalid as the girl is under 18 years old
NEET PG 2025 Medicine Previous Year Questions
Question 1: A patient presents with complaints of salt craving, generalized hyperpigmentation, and laboratory findings of hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Addison’s disease B) Conn’s disease C) Pheochromocytoma D) Cushing’s syndrome
Correct Answer: A) Addison’s disease
Question 2: A critically ill patient with COVID-19 is admitted to the ICU and requires mechanical ventilation. The patient’s PaO₂/FiO₂ ratio is 100, consistent with severe Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome. Which of the following ventilatory strategies is most appropriate for managing this patient?
Options: A) High PEEP and high tidal volume B) Low PEEP and low tidal volume C) Low PEEP and high tidal volume D) High PEEP and low tidal volume
Correct Answer: D) High PEEP and low tidal volume
Question 3: A 15-year-old boy presents with progressive enlargement of hands and feet, coarse facial features, prominent enlarged jaw, and frontal bossing. On examination, he is noted to have bitemporal hemianopia. Which of the following is the most definitive test to confirm the diagnosis?
Options: A) Increased IGF-1 levels B) Decreased IGF-1 levels C) Suppressed GH on administration of glucose
D) Non-suppressed GH on administration of glucose
Correct Answer: D) Non-suppressed GH on administration of glucose
Question 4: A 69-year-old man presents with severe dyspnea and increasing amounts of clear sputum. ABG reveals pH 7.2, PCO₂ 66 mmHg, PaO₂ 44 mmHg, and bicarbonate 26 mEq/L. His SpO₂ is 77%. Which of the following is the underlying abnormality?
Options: A) Metabolic acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: C) Respiratory acidosis
Question 5: An asthmatic patient on salbutamol and ipratropium continues to have nocturnal exacerbations. Which of the following is the next best step?
Options: A) Add oral corticosteroids B) Switch to an inhaled corticosteroid plus a long-acting β2-agonist C) Increase frequency of salbutamol D) Add montelukast at night
Correct Answer: B) Switch to an inhaled corticosteroid plus a long-acting β2-agonist
Question 6: A 19-year-old boy was diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. What is the drug of choice (DOC) for prophylaxis to be given to his contacts?
Options: A) Rifampicin B) Ethambutol C) Doxycycline D) Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: A) Rifampicin
Question 7: A patient presents with pain and swelling of the knee joint. Synovial fluid aspirate shows rhomboid-shaped crystals that are positively birefringent under polarized light microscopy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options: A) Gout B) Pseudogout C) Amyloidosis D) Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: B) Pseudogout
Question 8: A patient presents with progressive skin thickening. Laboratory evaluation reveals ANA positivity along with anti–Scl-70 antibodies. Which clinical manifestation is most strongly associated with this antibody?
Options: A) Gastric antral vascular ectasia B) Calcinosis cutis C) Interstitial lung disease D) Raynaud’s phenomenon
Correct Answer: C) Interstitial lung disease
Question 9: A patient presents with frothy sputum, hemoptysis, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and dyspnea on exertion. Lung biopsy reveals hemosiderin-laden macrophages. Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with this finding?
Options: A) Volume overload B) Right ventricular failure C) Pulmonary vein obstruction D) Protein-losing enteropathy
Correct Answer: B) Right ventricular failure
Question 10:
A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with altered sensorium, hypotension, and shortness of breath. His arterial blood gas reveals a pH of 7.2, PaCO₂ of 44 mmHg, PaO₂ of 54 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ of 16 mEq/L, and a base excess of -12. Serum electrolytes show sodium 130 mEq/L and chloride 84 mEq/L. Based on these findings, what is the most likely acid–base disturbance?
Options:
A) Metabolic acidosis with anion gap of 30
B) Metabolic acidosis with anion gap of 20
C) Respiratory acidosis with anion gap of 30
D) Respiratory alkalosis with anion gap of 20
Correct Answer: A) Metabolic acidosis with anion gap 30
Question 11: A 45-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, palpitations, and breathlessness. On examination, blood pressure and oxygen saturation are normal, jugular venous pressure is elevated, the pulse is irregular, and tender hepatomegaly is present. Cardiac examination reveals a heaving apex and a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex. She has a past history of acute rheumatic fever. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is false?
Options: A) This patient has an increased risk of stroke B) “a” wave is absent on JVP C) This patient has features of right heart failure D) Pre-systolic accentuation of the mid-diastolic murmur is a hallmark feature
Correct Answer: D) Pre-systolic accentuation of the mid-diastolic murmur is a hallmark feature
Question 12: A patient presents with morning stiffness and tests positive for anti-CCP antibodies. Which of the following histological features is most characteristic of the underlying disease?
Options: A) Synovial inflammation with pannus formation B) Cartilage degeneration with osteophyte formation C) Subepidermal blister with IgA deposits D) Tophus with monosodium urate crystals
Correct Answer: A) Synovial inflammation with pannus formation
Question 13: A 70-year-old patient with hypertension and atrial fibrillation presents with an acute-onset weakness of right side of body and aphasia, which began 2 hours ago. A non-contrast CT scan of the brain shows no evidence of haemorrhage. What is the next best step in management?
Options: A) Administration of intravenous rTPA B) Carotid Doppler ultrasound C) Transesophageal echo D) IV low molecular weight heparin
Correct Answer: A) Administration of intravenous rTPA
Question 14: An HIV-positive patient presents with a 2-week history of fever, cough, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with tuberculosis. What is the most appropriate approach to management?
Options: A) Start antiretroviral therapy (ART) 2 weeks after initiating anti-tubercular therapy (ATT) B) Start ATT and ART simultaneously C) Start ART after completing the course of ATT D) Start ATT 2 weeks after initiating ART
Correct Answer: A) Start antiretroviral therapy (ART) 2 weeks after initiating anti-tubercular therapy (ATT)
Question 15: A 55-year-old man with a long-standing history of diabetes mellitus presents with numbness and tingling in both feet. On examination, deep tendon reflexes in the lower limbs are reduced. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Options:
A) Bilateral distal symmetric polyneuropathy
B) Autonomic neuropathy
C) Mononeuropathy
D) Acute motor axonal neuropathy
Correct Answer: A) Bilateral distal symmetric polyneuropathy
Question 16: A 21-year-old female, a known case of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM), presents to the emergency department with altered sensorium. She has a history of missing her insulin doses for the past two days. On examination, her blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg and pulse rate is 103/min. Laboratory values reveal a serum sodium of 126 mEq/L, potassium 4.3 mEq/L, BUN 79 mg/dL, creatinine 2.2 mg/dL, and a random blood glucose level of 720 mg/dL. Which of the following is not a part of the initial management of this patient?
Options: A) 3% NaCl B) 0.9% NaCl C) IV insulin D) Monitor potassium level
Correct Answer: A) 3% NaCl
Question 17: A 55-year-old female presents with respiratory distress and hemoptysis on day 7 after knee replacement surgery. Her respiratory rate is 28/min, and pulse is 120/min. What is the most appropriate investigation?
Options: A) Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan B) Chest X-ray C) CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA) D) D-dimer
Correct Answer: C) CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA)
Question 18: A patient in altered sensorium is found to have a serum sodium of 95 mEq/L. She was treated with 3% hypertonic saline, and after 24 hours, her sodium level increased to 111 mEq/L. After sodium correction, her neurological status has deteriorated. What is the next best step in management?
Options: A) Brainstem evoked potential B) Electroencephalogram (EEG) C) MRI brain D) CSF analysis
Correct Answer: C) MRI brain
Question 19:
A 12-year-old child with chronic kidney disease is admitted for evaluation of bone pain and growth retardation. Laboratory investigations reveal: serum calcium 7.2 mg/dL, serum phosphate 6.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 370 U/L, and elevated parathyroid hormone levels. X-ray of the long bones shows metaphyseal dysplasia. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? Options: A) Phosphate binders only B) Oral calcium supplements C) Calcium supplements with phosphate binders D) Oral calcium with vitamin D
Correct Answer: C) Calcium supplements with phosphate binders
Question 20:
A 70-year-old male presents to the emergency department with dyspnea and palpitations for the past 4 hours. ECG is suggestive of atrial fibrillation. He is hemodynamically stable. What is the next best step in management?
Options: A) Emergency cardioversion B) Control ventricular rate C) Echocardiography to look for left atrial clot D) Start low molecular weight heparin
Correct Answer: B) Control ventricular rate
NEET PG 2025 Microbiology Previous Year Questions
Question 1
Clinical question
A farmer presents with an ulcerative skin lesion with central necrosis. A smear from the lesion, stained with polychrome methylene blue, shows capsulated bacilli positive for the M’Fadyean reaction. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Bacillus anthracis
B) Yersinia pestis
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
Correct answer: A) Bacillus anthracis
Question 2
Clinical question
A 32‑year‑old farmer presents with high‑grade fever, severe myalgia, and redness of the eyes. Investigations reveal elevated bilirubin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Brucellosis
B) Weil’s syndrome
C) Malaria
D) Enteric fever
Correct answer: B) Weil’s syndrome
Question 3
Clinical question
A 19‑year‑old college student presents with sudden‑onset fever, headache, vomiting, and a rapidly spreading purpuric rash. He appears confused, and his BP is measured to be 80/50 mmHg, HR 120/min, and Temp 39.5°C. On examination, he has petechiae and purpura over his lower limbs and trunk. He succumbs to his illness, and an autopsy is carried out. The gross specimen of the brain is shown below. Which of the following pathogens is the most likely cause of his condition?
Options:
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Haemophilus influenzae type B
C) Neisseria meningitidis
D) Listeria monocytogenes
Correct answer: C) Neisseria meningitidis
Question 4
Clinical question
A 35‑year‑old man presents with a 2‑week history of low‑grade fever, nonproductive cough, weight loss, and fatigue. Chest X‑ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with patchy infiltrates. A lactophenol cotton blue mount from the sputum culture appears as below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Pulmonary tuberculosis
B) Histoplasmosis
C) Coccidioidomycosis
D) Blastomycosis
Correct answer: B) Histoplasmosis
Question 5
Non-clinical question
Group A Streptococcus is the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis in school-aged children. Which of the following bacterial components is primarily responsible for its attachment to fibronectin on the epithelial lining of the pharynx?
Options:
A) Lipoteichoic acid
B) Capsule
C) Flagella
D) Lipoprotein
Correct answer: A) Lipoteichoic acid
Question 6
Clinical question
A child presents with intense perianal itching, especially at night. On examination, thread‑like white worms are seen in the perianal region, and the microscopic examination is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
Options:
A) Enterobius vermicularis
B) Ancylostoma duodenale
C) Trichuris trichura
D) Ascaris lumbricoides
Correct answer: A) Enterobius vermicularis
Question 7
Clinical question
A child presents with painful vesicular lesions near the mouth. Tzanck
smear reveals multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions. What is the most likely
causative organism?
Options:
A) Cytomegalovirus
B) Herpes simplex virus
C) Varicella-zoster virus
D) Molluscum contagiousm virus
Correct answer: B) Herpes simplex virus
Question 8
Clinical question
A male patient presents with fever, cough, and hemoptysis. Microscopic examination of bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluid shows septate hyphae with acute-angle dichotomous branching. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Mucormycosis
B) Histoplasmosis
C) Aspergillosis
D) Candidiasis
Correct answer: C) Aspergillosis
Question 9
Clinical question
A middle-aged man from a tropical region presents with progressive swelling of the lower limb. A peripheral blood smear is shown below. What is the most likely cause of his limb swelling?
Options:
A) Hypoalbuminemia
B) Lymphatic obstruction
C) Hypoproteinemia
D) Increased hydrostatic pressure
Correct answer: B) Lymphatic obstruction
Question 10
Clinical question
A patient presents with chronic meningitis. Laboratory findings reveal Gram-positive, filamentous branching bacteria which are weakly acid-fast with modified Ziehl–Neelsen (ZN) stain. The paraffin bait technique is used to isolate the organism. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
Options:
A) Actinomyces israeli
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Nocardia asteroides
D) Cryptococcus neoformans
Correct answer: C) Nocardia asteroides
Question 11
Clinical question
In a village, several people develop dysentery after consuming raw milk. Laboratory examination of stool samples reveals: Gram-negative, curved rods with predominant polymorphonuclear infiltration. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
Options:
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
D) Campylobacter jejuni
Correct Answer: D) Campylobacter jejuni
Question 12
Clinical question
A patient presents with a long-standing swelling and discharging sinuses on the foot as shown below. The discharge contains black granules. What is the most likely finding on the KOH mount?
Options:
A) Small spores and pseudohyphae
B) Arthrospores
C) Septate hyphae with 4-5 microns in width
D) Filamentous branching bacteria
Correct Answer:C) Septate hyphae with 4-5 microns in width
NEET PG 2025 OBG Previous Year Questions
Q.1
Clinical Question:
In a woman with a regular 28-day menstrual cycle, which of the following best describes the typical hormonal profile during days 21 to 25 of the cycle?
Options:
Low estrogen, high progesterone, low LH and FSH
Low estrogen, low progesterone, low FSH and LH
Low estrogen, high progesterone, high FSH and LH
High estrogen, high progesterone, low FSH and LH
Correct Answer: D) High estrogen, high progesterone, low FSH and LH
Q.2
Clinical Question:
Identify the manoeuvre shown in the given image.
Options:
Manual removal of placenta
Controlled cord traction
Uterine massage
Bimanual compression of the uterus
Correct Answer: B) Controlled cord traction
Q.3
Clinical Question:
A 32-year-old woman with an obstetric score of P2L2 presents with 6 months of secondary amenorrhea. Laboratory evaluation shows FSH 36 mIU/mL, LH 56 mIU/mL, and anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) 0.05 ng/mL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Primary Ovarian Insufficiency
Hypothyroidism
Hyperprolactinemia
Correct Answer: B) Primary Ovarian Insufficiency
Q.4
Clinical Question:
A 28-year-old woman in labour is undergoing per vaginal examination, and a pulsating umbilical cord is felt below the presenting part. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Options:
Elevate buttocks, push the presenting part upward, and fill the bladder
Attempt to reposition the cord into the vagina and vaginal packing
Wait and watch with close monitoring
Augment labor with oxytocin
Correct Answer: A) Elevate buttocks, push the presenting part upward, and fill the bladder
Q.5
Clinical Question:
A G2P1L1 with a history of a previous cesarean section is undergoing a trial of labor and presents in active labor. During labor, there is fetal bradycardia and maternal tachycardia. Persistent suprapubic pain between contractions is also noted. On examination, the cervix is 8 cm dilated, and the vertex is at -1 station. What is the next best step in management?
Options:
Emergency lower segment cesarean section
Artificial rupture of membranes
Augment labor with oxytocin
Attempt instrumental vaginal delivery
Correct Answer: A) Emergency lower segment cesarean section
Q.6
Clinical Question:
In the repair of a mediolateral episiotomy, what is the correct order of tissue approximation during suturing?
Options:
Mucosa → Muscle → Skin
Skin → Mucosa → Muscle
Muscle → Skin → Mucosa
Skin → Muscle → Mucosa
Correct Answer: A) Mucosa → Muscle →
Q.7
Clinical Question:
A patient presents with 2 months of amenorrhea and an enlarged uterus. On examination, there is darkening of the areola, prominent Montgomery’s tubercles, a linea nigra is present, and there is bluish discoloration of the vagina on per-vaginal examination. How would you categorize these signs of pregnancy?
Options:
Presumptive signs of pregnancy
Probable signs of pregnancy
Positive signs of pregnancy
Diagnostic signs of pregnancy
Correct Answer: B) Probable signs of pregnancy
Q.8
Clinical Question:
Hydronephrosis due to the extension of a cervical tumor is a criterion for which FIGO stage of cervical cancer?
Options:
Stage IIIA
Stage IIIB
Stage IVA
Stage IVB
Correct Answer: B) Stage IIIB
Q.9
Clinical Question:
A woman presents with abdominal distension and ascites. On examination, the abdomen is enlarged, and CA-125 levels are elevated. Imaging shows a large multicystic ovarian mass with irregular septations. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
Serous cystadenocarcinoma
Granulosa cell tumor
Simple serous cystadenoma
Mucinous cystadenoma
Correct Answer: A) Serous cystadenocarcinoma
Q.10
Clinical Question:
A woman develops atonic postpartum hemorrhage that does not respond to initial measures and medical management. What is the next best step in management that can be done in the labour room?
Options:
Intrauterine balloon tamponade
Uterine artery ligation
Internal iliac artery ligation
Compression sutures
Correct Answer: A) Intrauterine balloon tamponade
Q.11
Clinical Question:
A primigravida undergoing vaginal delivery develops shoulder dystocia after delivery of the fetal head. Which of the following is the correct sequence of maneuvers used in its management?
Options:
McRoberts → Rubin → Gaskin → Zavanelli
Zavanelli → McRoberts → Gaskin → Rubin
Rubin → McRoberts → Gaskin → Zavanelli
Gaskin → Rubin → McRoberts → Zavanelli
Correct Answer: A) McRoberts → Rubin → Gaskin → Zavanelli
Q.12
Clinical Question:
A woman, P2L2, with a history of difficult vaginal deliveries conducted by an untrained attendant, now presents with the complaint of “something coming out of her vagina.” On examination, the finding is as shown in the image below. Injury to which of the following ligaments is most likely responsible for this condition?
Options:
Sacrospinous ligament
Mackenrodt’s ligament
Broad ligament
Round ligament
Correct Answer: B) Mackenrodt’s ligament
Q.13
Clinical Question:
During an assisted breech delivery, the attending identified winging of the scapula and performed the following manoeuvre. Identify this.
Options:
Lovset maneuver
Burn-Marshall maneuver
Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver
Pinard’s maneuver
Correct Answer: A) Lovset maneuver
Q.14
Clinical Question:
A 55-year-old post-menopausal woman presents to the OPD for a routine BP checkup. Her BP was 170/100 mmHg. She also complains of a blood-stained discharge per vagina. What is the next best step in management?
Options:
Reassure her that some discharge is normal at this age
Immediate referral to a cardiologist before any further evaluation
Immediate pelvic examination, transvaginal sonography (TVS), and Pap smear
Start antihypertensive medication and observe for 1 week
Correct Answer: C) Immediate pelvic examination, transvaginal sonography (TVS), and Pap smear.
Q.15
Clinical Question:
A 46-year-old nulliparous woman presents with delayed cycles and heavy bleeding for the past 1 year. Transvaginal ultrasonography reveals an endometrial thickness of 18 mm. What is the next best step in management?
Options:
Start combined oral contraceptive pills
Schedule hysterectomy
Wait and watch for 6 months
Perform endometrial biopsy
Correct Answer: D) Perform endometrial biopsy
Q.16
Clinical Question:
A 65-year-old postmenopausal female presents with a chief complaint of vaginal bleeding for the past three months. She undergoes a hysterectomy, and the gross specimen is shown below. Based on the image and clinical scenario, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
Endometrial cancer
Fibroid
Endometriosis
Adenomyosis
Correct Answer: A) Endometrial cancer
Q.17
Clinical Question:
A woman presents for her first antenatal visit and reports that her LMP was approximately 2 months ago. Which ultrasound parameter is the most accurate for dating the pregnancy at this stage?
Options:
Biparietal Diameter (BPD)
Crown-Rump Length (CRL)
Femur Length (FL)
Abdominal Circumference (AC)
Correct Answer: B) Crown-Rump Length (CRL)
Q.18
Clinical Question:
A primigravida at 37 weeks presents with decreased fetal movements for one day. A Nonstress Test (NST) showed one acceleration in 20 minutes and no decelerations. What is the next step in management?
Options:
Continue NST for 40 minutes
Induce labour immediately
Emergency LSCS
Instrumental delivery
Correct Answer: A) Continue NST for 40 minutes
Q.19
Clinical Question:
A 42-year-old woman presents with chronic lower abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. MRI is
as shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
Intramural fibroid
Adenomyosis
Endometrial carcinoma
Endometriosis
Correct Answer: B) Adenomyosis
Q.20
Clinical Question:
A pregnant female gives a history of toxoplasma infection 5 years ago and currently tests positive for IgG antibodies. On examination, lymphadenopathy is noted. What is the next step in management?
Options:
Reassure and continue the pregnancy
Carry out an MTP
Counsel her about the potential teratogenic effects of the infection
Treat the female for toxoplasmosis
Correct Answer: A) Reassure and continue the pregnancy
NEET PG 2025 Ophthalmology Previous Year Questions
Q.1
Clinical Question:
A 15-year-old girl presents with a painless swelling in the right supraorbital region that has been gradually progressing over the past year. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
Lacrimal gland mass
Dermoid cyst
Hemangioma
Epidermoid cyst
Correct Answer: B) Dermoid cyst
Q.2
Clinical Question:
A patient presents with guttate lesions in one eye and bullous keratopathy in the other eye. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Options:
Trichoma
Herpes keratitis
Fuchs endothelial dystrophy
Keratoconus
Correct Answer: C) Fuch’s endothelial dystrophy
Q.3
Clinical Question:
Which of the following statements regarding orbital cellulitis is true?
Options:
Ethmoidal sinusitis is the most common source of infection in all age groups
Topical broad-spectrum antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment
The inflammation is restricted anterior to the orbital wall
Patients characteristically present with proptosis, blurring of vision, normal pupillary and ocular movements
Correct Answer: A) Ethmoidal sinusitis is the most common source of infection in all age groups
Q.4
Clinical Question:
A 65-year-old male presents with complaints of a decrease in vision. There were white deposits on the anterior lens surface, seen during slit lamp examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
Glaucomflecken with acute angle closure glaucoma
Pseudoexfoliation syndrome
iritis with pupillary deposits
Anterior capsule opacification
Correct Answer: B) Psedoexfoliation syndrome
Q.5
Non-clinical Question:
Which of the following conditions is treated using the modality shown in the image?
Options:
Keratoconus
Keratoglobus
Vogt’s limb striae
Corneal dystrophy
Correct Answer: A) Keratoconus
Q.6
Clinical Question:
Binocular single vision consists of which of the following components, corresponding to Image A and Image B, respectively?
Options:
Fusion and stereopsis
Fusion and simultaneous macular perception
Simultaneous macular perception and stereopsis
Simultaneous macular perception and fusion
Correct Answer: D) Simultaneous macularperception and fusion
NEET PG 2025 Orthopaedics Previous Year Questions
Question 1
Clinical question
A 26-year-old male presents with complaints of chronic lower back pain, which has been progressive for the past 1 year. He also experiences early morning stiffness lasting for 1.5 hours, which is relieved by exercise. He also gives a history of anterior uveitis. Which of the following investigations is most useful for early diagnosis of the underlying condition?
Options:
A) Anti-CCP
B) MRI of the sacroiliac joint
C) CT spine of the sacroiliac joint
D) Bone scan
Correct answer: B) MRI of sacroiliac joint
Question 2
Clinical question
A 66-year-old female presents with chronic lower back pain. An oblique lumbar spine X-ray is done and shown below. Based on the radiological findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Spondylolysis
B) Spondylolisthesis
C) Crush vertebral fracture
D) Klippel Feil syndrome
Correct answer: A) Spondylolysis
Question 3
Clinical question
A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motorbike accident and is found to have a closed midshaft fracture of the left tibia. Six hours later, he develops severe leg pain that is disproportionate to the injury and worsens with passive dorsiflexion of the foot. The pain is not relieved by analgesics. On examination, dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are present, but there is no sensation over the first dorsal web space. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Options:
A) Administer opioid analgesics and observation
B)Elevation of limb and observation
C) Immediate fasciotomy
D) Apply cast and follow-up
Correct answer: C) Immediate fasciotomy
Question 4
Clinical question
A 24-year-old male sustained a shaft of femur fracture after a road traffic accident, and internal fixation was done for the same. Two days later, he developed shortness of breath with confusion and a petechial rash. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Fat embolism
B) Tension pneumothorax
C) Air embolism
D) ARDS
Correct answer: A) Fat embolism
Question 5
Clinical question
A 70-year-old man undergoes routine blood work as part of a health check-up. He has no major complaints except for occasional bone pain. He denies weakness or recent fractures. On physical examination, no focal deficits are noted.
X-ray pelvis shows thickened cortices with areas of sclerosis and lysis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Osteomalacia
B) Primary hyperparathyroidism
C) Paget’s disease
D) Osteoporosis
Correct answer: C) Paget’s disease
NEET PG 2025 Pathology Previous Year Questions
Question 1
Non-clinical question:
Which of the following conditions follows the inheritance pattern shown in the given pedigree chart?
Options:
A) Achondroplasia
B) Kearns-Sayre syndrome
C) Williams syndrome
D) Prader-Willi syndrome
Correct answer: B) Kearns-Sayre syndrome
Question 2
Clinical question:
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of disseminated gonococcal infection. A joint aspirate during an episode of joint pain reveals Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Which of the following could be the underlying mechanism?
Options:
A)Myeloperoxidase deficiency
B) PMN cell chemotactic defect
C) Terminal complement deficiency
D) C2 deficiency
Correct answer: C) Terminal complement deficiency
Question 3
Clinical question
A patient presents with long limbs and ectopia lentis. His arm span is found to be greater than his height. Marfan syndrome is suspected. Which of the following gene defects is most likely responsible?
Options:
A) PLOD1
B) Elastin
C) Fibrillin
D) COLA1
Correct answer: C) Fibrillin
Question 4
Clinical question
A 45-year-old female presents with a 2-year history of progressive unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, and ataxia. An MRI imaging of the brain reveals a well-defined tumour located in the cerebellopontine angle (CPA). A surgical resection is performed, and subsequent histopathological examination of the tumour reveals Antoni A and B areas. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Meningioma
B) Ependymoma
C) Schwannoma
D) Vestibular neuritis
Correct answer: C) Schwannoma
Question 5
Clinical question
An elderly male presents with cervical lymph node enlargement and increased bleeding tendency. Bone marrow examination reveals >25% blasts, and the peripheral smear is as shown below. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is most likely associated with this condition?
Options:
A) Inv (16)
B) t(15;17)
C) t(8;21)
D) t(9;22)
Correct answer: B) t(15;17)
Question 6
Clinical question
An elderly male presents with progressive, painless testicular swelling. Gross examination of the testis shows a multinodular, homogeneous, gray-white mass without haemorrhage or necrosis. Histopathological examination is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Yolk sac tumour
B) Seminoma
C) Embryonal carcinoma
D) Leydig cell tumour
Correct answer: B) Seminoma
Question 7
Clinical question
A patient presents with a midline neck swelling. Histology showed amyloid deposition, and immunohistochemistry is positive for synaptophysin, chromogranin, and TTF‑1. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Papillary thyroid cancer
B) Medullary thyroid cancer
C) Follicular thyroid cancer
D) Anaplastic thyroid cancer
Correct answer: B) Medullary thyroid cancer
Question 8
Non-clinical question
A gross specimen of the liver shows a well-circumscribed lesion, as shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Hepatocellular adenoma
B) Hepatocellular carcinoma
C) Focal nodular hyperplasia
D) Regenerative nodule
Correct answer: C) Focal nodular hyperplasia
Question 9
Clinical question
An elderly male presents with bilateral cervical lymph node enlargement. Histopathological examination reveals small cleaved cells as well as larger cells with open chromatin. Immunohistochemistry reveals CD10-positive and BCL2-positive cells. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is most commonly associated with this condition?
Options:
A) t(11;18)
B) t(14;18)
C) t(11;14)
D) t(8;14)
Correct answer: B) t(14;18)
Question 10
Non-clinical question
Which of the following are caspase-mediated forms of cell death?
Options:
A) Apoptosis and necroptosis
B) Apoptosis and necrosis
C) Apoptosis and pyroptosis
D) Apoptosis and ferroptosis
Correct answer: C) Apoptosis and pyroptosis
Question 11
Clinical question
A patient presents with mild anaemia and jaundice. Examination reveals splenomegaly. Laboratory findings show an elevated mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC). His father has also had a similar clinical history. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Hereditary spherocytosis
B) Iron deficiency anaemia
C) Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia
D) Thalassemia minor
Correct answer: A) Hereditary spherocytosis
Question 12
Clinical question
An 8-year-old child presents with progressive vision loss, and an MRI was done, which showed a suprasellar mass. Histopathology of the mass showed the findings of palisading epithelium and wet keratin. Which among the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Craniopharyngioma
B) Pituitary adenoma
C) Rathke’s cleft cyst
D) Meningioma
Correct answer: A) Craniopharyngioma
Question 13
Clinical question
An elderly patient presents with fatigue, generalised lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly. After examination and laboratory investigations, a diagnosis of CLL is made. Which of the following laboratory techniques is most useful to compare and quantify CD markers on cells?
Options:
A) ELISA
B) Western blot
C) Flow cytometry
D) Immunohistochemistry
Correct answer: C) Flow cytometry
Question 14
Non-clinical question
Antimitochondrial antibody (AMA) positivity is most strongly associated with which of the following conditions?
Options:
A) Primary biliary cholangitis
B) Autoimmune hepatitis
C) Sarcoidosis
D) Wilson’s
Correct answer: A) Primary biliary cholangitis
Question 15
Clinical question
A patient presents with a 1‑month history of cough, chest pain, and dyspnea. Imaging reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Biopsy of a mediastinal lymph node shows non‑caseating granulomas containing stellate inclusions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Tuberculosis
B) Sarcoidosis
C) Lung cancer
D) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Correct answer: B) Sarcoidosis
Question 16
Clinical question
A 45-year-old man presents with rapidly progressive swelling, pain, foul-smelling discharge, and discolouration of the hand following a traumatic injury, as shown in the image given below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Wet gangrene
B) Dry gangrene
C) Infectious tenosynovitis
D) Raynaud’s phenomenon
Correct answer: A) Wet gangrene
Question 17
Clinical question
A middle-aged woman presents with dry eyes and dry mouth. Laboratory tests reveal positive anti-Ro (SSA) and anti-La (SSB) antibodies. What is the most likely underlying pathological mechanism?
Options:
A) Destruction of exocrine glands by neutrophils
B) IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction
C) Lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of salivary and lacrimal glands
D) Deposition of amyloid in salivary glands
Correct answer: C) Lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of salivary and lacrimal glands
Question 18
Clinical question
A 36-year-old male patient with gluten sensitivity presents with intensely itchy, grouped vesicular lesions on the extensor surfaces. A skin biopsy with direct immunofluorescence shows the following finding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options
A) Bullous pemphigoid
B) Pemphigus vulgaris
C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
D) Psoriasis
Correct answer: C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
Question 19
Clinical question
A patient presents with a persistent red lesion on the lateral border of the tongue. Biopsy confirms squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following viral infections is most strongly associated with this malignancy?
Options:
A) Epstein–Barr virus
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Herpes simplex virus
D) Human papillomavirus
Correct answer: D) Human papillomavirus
Pediatrics
NEET PG 2025 Pediatrics Previous Year Questions
Question 1
Clinical question
A 2-year-old child is brought to the emergency room with a generalised seizure following a high-grade fever. What is the first-line drug of choice for seizure control in this
setting?
Options:
A) Diazepam
B) Ethosuximide
C) Valproate
D) Phenytoin
Correct answer: A) Diazepam
Question 2
Clinical question
A 3-year-old boy presents with fever and cough. A chest x-ray was done, which showed the following findings. Which of the following is the most likely underlying pathology?
Options:
A) Right upper lobe collapse
B) Right upper lobe abscess
C) Right upper lobe consolidation
D) Bronchogenic carcinoma
Correct answer: C) Right lobe consolidation
Question 3
Clinical question
A pregnant woman is diagnosed with HIV infection at 34 weeks of gestation. Her viral load was 1200 copies/mL, and she was then started on ART. She delivers a 2.5 kg term baby at 38 weeks. What is the most appropriate postnatal prophylaxis for the newborn?
Options:
A) Both nevirapine and zidovudine for 12 weeks, along with exclusive breast milk feeding
B) Nevirapine for 6 weeks with exclusive breastfeeding
C) No breastfeeding and initiate exclusive formula feeding
D) Nevirapine prophylaxis for 6 weeks
Correct answer: A) Both nevirapine and zidovudine for 12 weeks, along with exclusive breast milk feeding
Question 4
Clinical question
Which of the following is most likely in a neonate presenting with congenital hypothyroidism, decreased T3 and T4 levels, decreased radioactive iodine uptake, but a normal thyroid on ultrasound?
Options:
A) Thyroid dyshormonogenesis
B) Thyroid agenesis
C) Iodine deficiency
D) Defect in iodine transport
Correct answer: D) Defect in iodine transporter
Question 5
Clinical question
During examination of a neonate, an index finger was found missing along with multiple deformities of all four limbs, as shown in the image given below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita
B) CTEV
C) Amniotic band syndrome
D) Syndactyly
Correct answer: C) Amniotic band syndrome
NEET PG 2025 Pharmacology Previous Year Questions
Question: 1
Clinical question
A 38-year-old female presents with a pounding headache, palpitations, and sweating for 2 months. Each episode lasts for 20 minutes and is triggered by stress or physical exertion. Her pulse is 112/min, BP is 180/100 mm Hg, and urine shows elevated VMA and normetanephrines. MRI reveals a right adrenal mass. Which drug can be used both pre- and intra-operatively?
Options: A) Esmolol B) Phenoxybenzamine C) Nifedipine D) Clonidine
Correct Answer: B) Phenoxybenzamine
Question 2
Non-clinical question
In the given cardiac action potential graph, identify the phase where amiodarone acts.
Options:
0
1
2
3
Correct Answer: D) 3
Question: 3
Clinical question
A patient with tumour lysis syndrome has elevated uric acid levels. What is the mechanism of action of pegloticase?
Options:
Oxidises uric acid
Hydrolyses uric acid
Inhibits xanthine oxidase
Inhibits URAT-1 transporters in the kidney
Correct Answer: A) Oxidises uric acid
Question: 4
Clinical question
A female patient with HIV infection (CD4 count 150 cells/mm³) was newly diagnosed with rifampicin-resistant tuberculosis. What anti-tubercular treatment regimen should be initiated, and which HIV-related complication should you look out for?
Which of the following drugs is most appropriate to be started in a diabetic patient with an HbA1c of 8.8 mmol/L with heart failure who is already on metformin and insulin glargine?
Options:
Pioglitazone
Empagliflozin
Glibenclamide
Sitagliptin
Correct Answer: B) Empagliflozin
Question 6
Clinical question
A 32-year-old woman with a BMI of 38 kg/m² undergoes an elective lower segment cesarean section (LSCS) at 35 weeks due to preeclampsia. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological method for DVT prophylaxis in this patient?
Options:
Aspirin
Clopidogrel
Warfarin
LMWH
Correct Answer: D) LMWH
Question 7
Clinical question
What is the mechanism of renal calculi formation in a patient on Hydrochlorothiazide?
Options:
Increased calcium excretion
Decreased calcium excretion
Increased oxalate absorption
Decreased citrate excretion
Correct Answer: D) Decreased citrate excretion
Question 8
Non-clinical question
In the Pritchard regimen for the management of eclampsia, what is the loading dose of magnesium sulfate?
Options:
10
14
4
20
Correct Answer: B) 14
Question 9
Clinical question
A patient is diagnosed with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and requires prophylaxis for the same. Which of the following drugs is appropriate for this patient?
Options:
IV adenosine
IV esmolol
Oral phenytoin
Oral verapamil
Correct Answer: D) Verapamil
Question 10
Clinical question
A female diagnosed with migraine presents to the OPD and complains of 4-5 episodes per month, with each episode lasting 24-48 hours. She also experiences anxiety and palpitations. She experiences partial pain relief with OTC NSAIDs and was started on sumatriptan prophylaxis, but developed chest tightness and flushing. She has no history of cardiac illnesses, but there is a positive family history of coronary artery disease. Which of the following drugs can be used for prophylaxis in this patient?
Options:
Naratriptan
Propranolol
Topiramate
Ergotamine
Correct Answer: B) Propranolol
Question 11
Clinical question
A 60-year-old man with chronic kidney disease presents with complaints of increasing
fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, and signs of congestive heart failure. On evaluation, he is found to have anaemia. Which of the following drugs is appropriate for this patient?
Options:
Parenteral iron
Folic acid
Filgastrim
Darbepoietin-alpha
Correct Answer: D) Darbepoietin-alpha
Question 12
Non-clinical question
Benralizumab, a monoclonal antibody used to treat asthma, acts against which of the following?
Options:
IL-1
IL-4
IL-5
TNF alpha
Correct Answer: C) IL-5
Question 13
Clinical question
A patient presents with complaints of patches in the oral mucosa, as shown below, with a burning sensation on taking spicy food for the past 6 months. Which of the following drugs can cause this side effect?
Options:
A) Ciprofloxacin
B) Fluconazole
C) Beta blockers
D) Lithium
Correct Answer: C) Beta blockers
Question 14
Clinical question
A patient presents with symptoms of GERD. Which of the following drugs increases the tone of the LES and increases gastric emptying?
Options:
Sodium alginate
Pantoprazole
Metoclopramide
Vonoprazan
Correct Answer: C) Metoclopramide
NEET PG 2025 Physiology Previous Year Questions
Q.1
Clinical Question:
A 22-year-old college student flies to Leh, which is at an altitude of 3700 m above sea level. She experiences nausea, headache, mental confusion, and blurred vision. Which of the following is the underlying mechanism for these findings?
Options:
Increase in sympathetic activity leading to vasoconstriction of cerebral vessels, leading to transudation of fluid
Decrease in PaO₂ leading to vasoconstriction of cerebral vessels, leading to transudation of fluid
Decrease in PaO₂ leading to vasodilatation of cerebral vessels, leading to transudation of fluid
Decrease in pH leading to vasodilatation of cerebral vessels, leading to transudation of fluid
Correct Answer: C) Decrease in PaO₂ leading to vasodilatation of cerebral vessels, leading to transudation of fluid
Q.2
Clinical Question:
A woman presents with complaints of secondary amenorrhea and infertility. Investigations revealed a microadenoma of the pituitary gland and hyperprolactinemia. What is the underlying mechanism by which hyperprolactinemia causes these complaints?
Options:
Antagonistic effect of prolatin on estrogen receptors
Decreased GnRH secretion from hypothalamus
Increased secretion of FSH
Increased secretion of LH
Correct Answer: B) Decreased GnRH secretion from hypothalamus
Q.3
Clinical Question:
A patient presents with nausea, vomiting, and muscle cramps. Lab tests reveal hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. On examination, there is hyperpigmentation of the skin. Which of the following hormones is directly responsible for the hyperpigmentation?
Options:
ACTH
Cortisol
Aldosterone
Renin
Correct Answer: A) ACTH
Q.4
Non-clinical Question:
Which of the following sarcomeres corresponds to point B on the graph?
Options:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Correct Answer: Option C
Q.5
Non-clinical Question:
If there is no net transudation across a capillary with a capillary hydrostatic pressure of 18 mm Hg, capillary oncotic pressure of 27 mm Hg, and interstitial oncotic pressure of 7 mm Hg, what should be the interstitial hydrostatic pressure?
Options:
2 mm Hg
-2 mm Hg
0 mm Hg
1 mm Hg
Correct Answer: B) -2 mm Hg
Q.6
Non-clinical Question:
The given graph shows PCo2 and PO2 of the right lung along with ventilation and perfusion ratio. Which point on the graph represents V/Q ratio if there is a complete block of the blood supply at alveolar level of right lung due to pulmonary embolism?
Options:
A
B
D
E
Correct Answer: D) E
NEET PG 2025 PSM Previous Year Questions
Question 1
Non-Clinical Question
According to the population strategy for prevention of cardiovascular disease, what is the recommended dietary allowance of cholesterol per day?
Options:
A) 100mg/1000 kcal
B) 200mg/1000 kcal
C) 300mg/1000 kcal
D) 400mg/1000 kcal
Correct Answer: A) 100mg/1000 kcal
Question 2
Clinical Question
A 50-year-old man from Chittoor, Andhra Pradesh, presents to the OPD with features of
osteoporosis. Examination reveals outward bending of both legs. Which of the following is not used in his management?
Options:
A) Fluoride supplementation
B) Make a surface running water source available
C) Change the source of water
D) Add alum and lime to water
Correct Answer: A) Fluoride supplementation
Question 3
Non-Clinical Question
Under Weekly Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation, what dose of iron and folic acid is given to girls 10-19 years of age:
Options:
A) 60mg elemental iron + 100mcg FA
B) 100mg elemental iron + 100mcg FA
C) 100mg elemental iron + 500mcg FA
D) 60mg elemental iron + 500mcg FA
Correct Answer: C) 100mg elemental iron + 500mcg FA
Question 4
Non-Clinical Question
There is a report of toxic fumes leaking from a nearby chemical factory. What should be your immediate action?
Options:
A) Close all doors and windows and seal your home with plastic/tape
B) Open all windows and try to ventilate the house
C) Stay inside and wait for further instructions
D) Immediately run outside without checking the wind direction or alerts
Correct Answer: A) Close all doors and windows and seal your home with plastic/tape
Question 5
Non-Clinical Question
The interval between a host receiving an infection and the period of attaining maximum infectivity is called
Options:
A) Communicable period
B) Incubation period
C) Generation time
D) Serial interval
Correct Answer: C) Generation time
Question 6
Non-Clinical Question
In an experimental study, which of the following is the correct sequence of steps?
1. Randomisation
2. Manipulation
3. Statistical analysis
4. Follow-up (checked)
Options:
A) 2,3,1,4
B) 1,2,3,4
C) 2,1,4,3
D) 1,2,4,3
Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 4, 3
Question 7
Non-Clinical Question
For a population of 70,00,000 with 30% of it belonging to the slum population, how many Urban PHCs are required for the slum population according to NUHM?
Options:
A) 22
B) 42
C) 32
D) 52
Correct Answer: B) 42
Question 8
Non-Clinical Question
In a de facto census, individuals are counted based on:
Options:
A) Place of birth
B) Place on the date of enumeration
C) Place of employment
D) Usual place of residence
Correct Answer: B) Place on date of enumeration
Question 9
Non-Clinical Question
Which of the following tests is most appropriate to compare the mean hemoglobin levels between two independent groups?
Options:
A) Paired T test
B) Unpaired T-test
C) ANOVA
D) Chi-square test
Correct Answer: B) Unpaired T-test
Question 10
Clinical Question
A patient diagnosed with fever and dry cough was confirmed to have COVID-19. He was admitted to a district hospital and later died in the hospital. The death was registered 7 days later. What type of surveillance does this represent?
Options:
A) Active surveillance
B) Passive surveillance
C) Syndromic surveillance
D) Sentinel surveillance
Correct Answer: B) Passive surveillance
Question 11
Non-Clinical Question
Which of the following vaccines will you use in your PHC?
Options:
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) Only 1
D) 3, 4
Correct Answer: A) 1, 2
Question 12
Non-Clinical Question
A mosquito larva is examined under a hand lens. It showed no siphon tube, abdominal palmate hairs are present, and the larvae rest parallel to the water surface. What is the likely mosquito species?
Options:
A) Culex
B) Anopheles
C) Aedes
D) Mansonia
Correct Answer: B) Anopheles
Question 13
Non-Clinical Question
A study found that breast cancer screening increases the 5-year survival rate, but there is no change in overall mortality. What type of bias does this suggest?
Options:
A) Berksoniana bias
B) Survival bias
C) Lead time bias
D) Detection bias
Correct Answer: C) Lead time bias
Question 14
Non-Clinical Question
During a community medicine demonstration, medical students are instructed to perform the Nalgonda technique. Each student is asked to bring two material bags from the set shown below:
Bag A – Alum
Bag B – Gypsum
Bag C – Charcoal
Bag D – Lime
Which combination of bags is required to perform the Nalgonda technique correctly?
Options:
A) A and D
B) B and C
C) A and B
D) B and C
Correct Answer: A) A and D
Question 15
Clinical Question
A 3-year-old child presents with bowing of the legs. Which of the following nutritional supplementation programs specifically covers children under 6 years of age?
Options:
A) ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services)
B) Mid-Day Meal Scheme
C) Anemia Mukt Bharat
D) National Nutrition Deficiency Control Programme
Correct Answer: A) ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services)
Question 16
Non-Clinical Question
A new community-level intervention is being evaluated. Researchers allocated 20 Primary Health Centres (PHCs) to receive standard care, and another 20 PHCs to receive the new community intervention. What is the most appropriate classification of this study?
Options:
A) Quasi-experimental study
B) Cluster RCT
C) Case-control study
D) Cross-sectional study
Correct Answer: B) Cluster RCT
Question 17
Non-Clinical Question
Which of the following is the most appropriate method used in health planning to assess whether objectives and targets are being fulfilled and to evaluate the quality of outcomes?
Options:
A) Supervision
B) Monitoring
C) Evaluation
D) Planning
Correct Answer: C) Evaluation
Question 18
Non-Clinical Question
A 7-month-old child is on complementary feeding along with continued breastfeeding. The child is given a khatori of semi-solid millet food. What is the recommended frequency and amount per day?
Options:
A) ½ to 1 khatori, 3 times per day
B) ½ to 1 khatori, 4 times per day
C) ½ to 1 khatori, 5 times per day
D) ½ to 1 khatori, 6 times per day
Correct Answer: A) ½ to 1 khatori, 3 times per day
NEET PG 2025 Psychiatry Previous Year Questions
Question 1
A 35-year-old man was arrested for attacking a coworker. During interrogation, he appears dishevelled and expresses paranoid delusions, stating he was not in the right state of mind. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Options:
A) Release him as he was not in the right state
B) Arrange a psychiatric consultation to assess fitness for trial
C) Proceed to trial
D) Convict him
Correct answer: B) Psychiatric consultation to assess fitness for trial
Question 2
Clinical question
A 68-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer presents with severe dyspnea. The oncology team determines that chemotherapy and radiotherapy would provide no benefit. However, the patient’s daughter insists on “doing everything,” including ICU admission and ventilator support. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Options:
A) Admit to the ICU and proceed with aggressive management
B) Discharge her as there is no further care that can be provided, and admit her to hospice
C) Start placebo treatment to relieve anxiety
D) Gather a family meeting to assess expectations and patient preferences
Correct answer: D) Gather a family meeting to assess expectations and patient preferences
Question 3
Clinical question
A schizophrenia patient on haloperidol who was responding well for the last 2 years now presents with orofacial dyskinesia, choreiform, tic-like movements, and possible dystonia. What is the most probable diagnosis and appropriate treatment?
Options:
A) Tardive dyskinesia – Valbenazine
B) Akathisia – Propranolol
C) Perioral tremor – Amantadine
D) Acute dystonia – Ropinirole
Correct answer: A) Tardive dyskinesia – Valbenazine
Question 4
Clinical question
A 34-year-old man is brought to the casualty and appears confused. After extensive efforts by a social worker, it was discovered that he is from a nearby village and ended up in the current location after a massive earthquake at his place. He has no recollection of his identity or how he ended up in the current location. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Dissociative amnesia
B) Dissociative personality disorder
C) Dissociative fugue
D) Transient global amnesia
Correct answer: C) Dissociative fugue
Question 5
Clinical question
A 20-year-old girl underwent a traumatic experience two weeks ago after witnessing a road traffic accident and the death of her father. She now experiences flashbacks of the event. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Post-traumatic stress disorder
B) Dissociative disorder
C) Acute stress disorder
D) Major depressive disorder
Correct answer: C) Acute stress disorder
Question 6
Clinical question
An individual comes to the OPD to talk about his friend Mr. K. Mr. K is extremely perfectionistic and often misses deadlines because of this. He has been described as “rigid” since adolescence and is unable to discard items even without sentimental value. Mr. K denies having any problems. Which of the following best describes his personality?
A patient sitting outside his home believes that whenever a bird is chirping, he has to follow the bird. He believes that he is getting these instructions from God and that he will be harmed if he does not comply. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Sudden delusional idea
B) Delusional perception
C) Delusional reference
D) Visual hallucination
Correct answer: B) Delusional perception
NEET PG 2025 Radiology Previous Year Questions
Q.1
Clinical Question:
A 45-year-old male presented with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and a chest X-ray showing associated bronchiectasis. The patient undergoes the contrast study shown below. What is the investigation of choice to confirm the diagnosis?
Options:
Manometry
CECT chest
Upper GI endoscopy
Esophagogram
Correct Answer: A) Manometry
Q.2
Clinical Question:
A 50-year-old male presents with right flank pain. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen reveals the findings as shown below. Based on the clinical presentation and CT image, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
Gall bladder cancer
Renal carcinoma
Retroperitoneal tumor
Left lobe liver abscess
Correct Answer: B) Renal carcinoma
Q.3
Clinical Question:
A newborn is admitted to the NICU in the first 24 hours of birth with severe dyspnea/respiratory distress. A chest x-ray is done, which is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Congenital Pulmonary airway malformation
Loculated pneumothorax
Congenital lobar emphysema
Correct Answer: A) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Q.4
Clinical Question:
A 50-year-old male presents with a right-sided neck swelling, which is pulsatile in nature and is compressible, refilling on removal of pressure. A CT-angiogram was performed and is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
Carotid body tumour
Carotid aneurysm
AV fistula
Hemangioma
Correct Answer: A) Carotid body tumour
Q.5
Clinical Question
Identify the correct features of the investigation shown in the given image.
Options:
Invasive and can be a therapeutic treatment for bladder calculi
Non-invasive and used to diagnose ureteropelvic junction obstruction
Non-invasive and gold standard for diagnosing bladder cancer
Requires percutaneous access to the renal pelvicalyceal system
Correct Answer: B) Non-invasive and used to diagnose ureteropelvic junction obstruction
Q.6
Clinical Question:
A 32-year-old female presents with recurrent headaches, and an MRI brain was done as shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
Glioma
Ependymoma
Meningioma
Pilocytic astrocytoma
Correct Answer: C) Meningioma
Q.7
Clinical Question:
An 8-year-old presents to the orthopedics OPD with complaints of a painless limp for the past 1 week. An X-ray is done and is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
Perthes disease
D) Tuberculosis hip
Correct Answer: C) Perthes disease
NEET PG 2025 Surgery Previous Year Questions
Question 1
Clinical question
A 65-year-old male with a stab injury to the abdomen presents to the casualty. Examination reveals abdominal tenderness and guarding. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Options:
A) Peritoneal wash
B) Emergency laparotomy
C) Ultrasound of the abdomen
D) CT abdomen
Correct answer: Emergency laparotomy
Question 2
Clinical question
A 25-year-old with a 5-year history of unilateral varicose veins on the left leg presents to the surgery OPD as shown below. Identify the correct statement regarding this condition.
Options:
A) The most common cause is pelvic tumours
B) Graded as C6
C) Recommended treatment is sclerotherapy in all cases
D) It can lead to eczema and pigmentation
Correct answer: D) It can lead to eczema and pigmentation
Question 3
Clinical question
Identify the stage of breast cancer depicted in the image below.
Options:
A) T4b
B) T4d
C) T4c
D) T3
Correct answer: B) T4D
Question 4
Non-clinical question
The fistula marked in the image given below is of which type according to the Park classification?
Options:
A) Transsphincteric
B) Intersphincteric
C) Suprasphincteric
D) Extrasphincteric
Correct answer: A) Transsphincteric
Question 5
Non-clinical question
Identify the type of knot shown in the image.
Options:
A) Surgeon’s knot
B) Granny’s knot
C) Square knot
D) Slip knot
Correct answer: A) Surgeon’s knot
Question 6
Non-clinical question
Identify the type of suture material shown in the image
Options:
A) Monofilament
B) Polyfilament
C) Organic
D) Braided
Correct answer: A) Monofilament
Question 7
Clinical question
A 25-year-old patient had an RTA and was initially conscious but later became unconscious and subsequently died. On postmortem examination, multiple petechial haemorrhages were seen in the corpus callosum, but no significant findings were seen on CT brain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B) Diffuse axonal injury
C) Subdural hematoma
D) Extradural hematoma
Options: B) Diffuse axonal injury
Question 8
Non-clinical question
Identify the type of bile duct injury shown in the image based on the Strasberg classification.
Options:
A) Type A
B) Type B
C) Type C
D) Type D
Correct answer: A) Type A
Question 9
Clinical question
A patient with jaundice, anorexia, and weight loss for 2 months. The gall bladder is palpable, soft, and non-tender. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A) Hepatocellular carcinoma
B) Gall bladder cancer
C) Pancreatic head cancer
D) Choledocholithiasis
Correct answer: C) Pancreatic head cancer
Question 10
Clinical question
A 40-year-old had the following structure resected. Which of the following complications can be seen 4 days later?
Options:
A) Deviation of the angle of the mouth
B) Carpopedal spasm
C) Neck hematoma
D) Migratory thrombophlebitis
Correct answer: B) Carpopedal spasm
Question 11
Non-clinical question
What is true about the procedure shown in the image?
Options:
A) Done in circumferential burns
B) The image shows a skin graft
C) Done for quick healing
D) Incisions on the upper limb are done to avoid major vessels
Correct answer: A) Done in circumferential lesions
Question 12
Clinical question
A 7-year-old boy presents with progressive non-retractable foreskin and tense, white preputial skin. What is the diagnosis?
Options:
A) Recurrent balanoposthitis
B) Urethral meatus stenosis
C) Paraphimosis
D) Balanitis xerotica obliterans
Correct answer: D) Balanitis xerotica obliterans
Commonly Asked Questions about NEET PG PYQs
1. Why should I practice NEET PG Previous Year Questions (PYQs)?
Practicing PYQs helps you understand the exam’s structure, focus areas, and level of difficulty. It also sharpens problem-solving skills and improves time management.
2. How many years of NEET PG PYQs should I solve?
It’s best to solve at least the last 5–7 years of PYQs. This gives you a clear view of recurring patterns and important subjects.
3. Are PYQs alone enough to crack NEET PG?
No. PYQs are a valuable revision tool, but should be combined with standard textbooks, conceptual study, and mock tests for complete preparation.
4. When should I start solving PYQs?
You can start early after finishing basic concepts, but they’re especially useful during revision phases. Multiple revisions of PYQs enhance recall and confidence.
5. Do NEET PG questions repeat from previous years?
Exact questions rarely repeat, but concepts and themes often do. Practicing PYQs ensures you don’t miss out on these recurring areas.
6. How do PYQs improve performance on exam day?
By solving PYQs in a timed setting, you get familiar with the exam format, manage stress better, and reduce last-minute surprises.
7. Where can I download previous years’ questions from?
Instead of searching multiple platforms for PYQs, get it all in one place with DocTutorials. Our QBank of 12,000+ MCQs, including PYQs, gives you exactly what you need to master the exam.
8. Will I get solutions for the NEET PG question papers?
With DocTutorials V5 QBank, all 12,000+MCQs & IBQs come with clear, exam-oriented explanations for both correct and incorrect options, integrated with concepts and PYQs—ensuring deep conceptual clarity, better pattern recognition, and fewer repeat mistakes
Making the correct career choice after earning an international medical degree is important to Indian and OCI graduates intending to…
NEET PG 2026 Answer Key: How to Check, Challenge & Calculate Your Score
NEET PG is one of the biggest milestones for medical graduates in India. Every year, lakhs of students sit for this exam, hoping to grab a seat in MD, MS, or PG-Diploma programs. Since the competition is tough and the cutoff is unpredictable, students often rely on the answer key to estimate their performance.
This article will walk you through everything you need to know about the NEET PG 2026 answer key, including who releases it, how to check it, and what you can or can’t challenge.
Keep reading for a detailed insight.
NEET PG Answer Key: Important Dates
The NEET PG answer key usually comes out a few days after the exam, but since the 2026 schedule isn’t out yet, we can go by previous patterns. Typically, the provisional answer key and response sheet get released first, followed by the final key after objections are reviewed.
Students can go through the NEET PG 2026 answer key dates below:
Events
Important Dates
NEET PG 2026 Exam Date
30th August 2026
Official NEET PG 2026 Answer Key
September 2026
How to Check NEET PG 2026 Answer Key?
Checking the NEET PG 2026 answer key is simple; it hardly takes a minute if you have your login details ready. Students can follow the steps below to download and verify their answers.
Here are the steps to follow to check the NEET PG answer key:
Step 1: Go to the official website of NBEMS, nbe.edu.in. That’s the only place answer keys will be released, so don’t fall for any other random links.
Step 2: On the homepage, click the link that says, “NEET PG 2026 Answer Key.” Sometimes it is located under the more recent announcements, so you may need to scroll.
Step 3: Log in with your registration ID and password. If you forgot your password, there is an option to “Forgot Password”.
Step 4: After logging in, download the answer key of NEET PG in PDF format along with your response sheet. The two documents will pop up on the screen. You can download them with one click.
Step 5: Compare your answers with the ones given in the official answer key. This is where you’ll be able to calculate your estimated score. It won’t be the final score, but it definitely gives you a clear idea of how your exam went.
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NEET PG 2026 follows a straightforward marking system where every correct answer adds 4 marks, while each wrong answer deducts 1 mark. With 180 MCQs in total, every response matters, so guessing blindly can cost you marks.
Before you start checking the answers, it is good to know how NEET PG 2026 marks every response. The marking pattern is simple and is unlikely to change from NEET PG 2025.
There are 180 multiple-choice questions, and each of them affects your score directly — either positively or negatively. Here’s the breakdown of the marking scheme:
Response Type
Marks Awarded
Correct Answer
+4 marks
Incorrect Answer
–1 mark
Unanswered Question
0 marks
This system rewards accuracy and punishes random guessing. For example, if you got 150 correct and 20 wrong, your score would be:
Marks from correct answers: 150 × 4 = 600
Marks lost due to incorrect answers: 20 × 1 = 20
Final score = 600 – 20 = 580
Since the paper contains 180 questions, the highest score you can obtain is 720. Knowing this scheme helps you make a quick estimate of your NEET PG score and avoids the last-minute confusion once the answer key is released.
How to Challenge the Official NEET PG Answer Key?
Challenging the NEET PG answer key is a chance to inform NBE about the discrepancies in the answers. When the provisional answer key is released, the National Board of Examinations also publishes an official public notice explaining how long the objection window will remain open.
Students can then carefully review the answers and raise objections if they believe there’s a mistake. You can’t challenge after the window closes, so timing matters. Here’s how you can challenge the NEET PG answer key in a step-by-step manner:
Step 1: Access the official website of the National Board of Examinations at www.nbe.edu.in. Only this website will feature the challenge link; any other unofficial site should not be trusted.
Step 2: Click the “NEET PG Answer Key Challenge” link on the homepage. It usually appears under the latest notifications section.
Step 3: Log in using your user ID and password. Without these, you will not be able to access the challenge portal.
Step 4: Lodge your objections online. You must upload your reasoning or proof for each objection. Furthermore, you must pay the prescribed fee of ₹1000 for each challenge.
The board will not review your objection unless the fee is paid. Once submitted, all objections are checked by the NBE. If your challenge is found valid, the answer will be corrected in the final answer key.
But remember, the final answer key can’t be challenged again, hence review everything carefully before submitting.
FAQs about NEET PG 2026 Answer Key
1. Who publishes the answer key for NEET PG?
The answer key for NEET PG is published by the National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS/NBE).
2. What is the official website for the NEET PG result?
3. Can students challenge the NEET PG 2026 answer key?
Yes, the students can raise objections once the provisional answer key is published. NBEMS does provide a window to challenge before the final key and result are published.
4. How do students calculate their NEET PG 2026 score?
You use the marking scheme: +4 for every correct answer, -1 for wrong, 0 for no attempt. Then count correct and wrong attempts to get the estimated score.
5. Is the complete question paper given along with the answer key?
No, the question paper is not released along with the answer key because of confidentiality/non-disclosure agreements. Only the answer key/response sheet/question IDs are shared, but not the complete question paper.
6. Is there a cost involved in raising an objection to the NEET PG answer key?
Yes, candidates are required to pay a nominal fee for each question they challenge. After receiving the objections, the board examines them carefully and updates the answer key wherever corrections are found to be valid.
7. What score is considered safe for NEET 2026?
For NEET 2026, candidates aiming for an MBBS seat in a Government Medical College under the General category should ideally target a score in the range of 610 to 650 or higher. Due to intense competition each year, scoring within this bracket significantly improves the chances of securing a seat in a top government institution.
8. How much do candidates have to pay to challenge a question in the NEET PG 2026 answer key?
Candidates are allowed to raise objections to individual answers by paying a fee of ₹200 for each question. The payment must be made online through the official NBE portal within the objection window.
9. What happens if the objections raised against the NEET 2026 answer key are found to be correct?
If the review committee confirms that an objection against the provisional answer key is valid, the concerned question is removed from evaluation. Marks for that question are then awarded to all candidates, irrespective of whether they attempted it or not.
10. In what way does the NEET PG answer key influence my rank?
The NEET PG 2026 answer key allows you to predict your approximate score ahead of the official results. Scoring higher generally leads to a stronger rank, which plays a key role in determining your counselling choices and the colleges you can aim for.
Conclusion
In short, the NEET PG answer key is released by NBEMS along with the question paper. The students check their responses, calculate their estimated marks, and even raise challenges if they find something off. And legitimate updates are available on the official NBEMS website, so you shouldn’t rely on random social media posts.
For added guidance for the NEET PG exam, DocTutorials can be your study partner. We offer crisp videos, a clinical Qbank, exam-focused notes, flashcards, and mindmaps, ensuring aspirants are well-prepared for the exam with complete clarity on NEET concepts.
Join DocTutorials today and explore our NEET PG course to excel in your medical career!
Preparing for the NEET PG 2026 can be an overwhelming journey because of its vast syllabus and the pressure to…
MCC NEET PG Counselling 2026: Complete Guide to Registration, Schedule, and Documentation
The Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) conducts counselling for the NEET PG (National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test – Postgraduate). Eligible candidates seeking admission to PG medical courses can visit the official MCC website to apply for NEET PG counselling.
Keep reading to learn more about the MCC NEET PG counselling process, choice filling, eligibility, documentation, and more.
What is MCC NEET PG Counselling?
Candidates who have successfully cleared the NEET PG exam must participate in counselling to secure a postgraduate medical seat. It is a centralized process for allocating seats to qualified doctors based on their All India rank, reservation category, and preferred college choices.
Conducted online by the Medical Counselling Committee (MCC), this seat allotment process primarily manages admissions for the 50 percent All India Quota (AIQ) seats in government medical colleges across the nation. In addition to the AIQ, the MCC also conducts 100 percent of the counselling for Central Institutes, Deemed Universities, ESIC hospitals, and Armed Forces Medical Services (AFMS) seats. The remaining 50 percent of state government seats, along with all regular private medical college seats, are handled entirely by respective state-level counselling authorities.
The MCC counselling process is typically conducted in multiple rounds, such as round 1, round 2, round 3, and a final stray vacancy round to ensure maximum seat occupancy. This digital system guarantees complete transparency, ensuring seats are allotted purely based on merit, structured choice filling, and official guidelines before candidates physically report to their allotted colleges.
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The NEET PG counselling is conducted in several steps. First, you need to complete registration and pay the applicable fees. Then, you can lock the seats of your preference and wait for seat allocation. Once you are allocated to any of your preferred seats, you can report to the college and take admission within the given time.
Here are the steps to follow for an MCC NEET PG counselling registration:
Step 1: Complete the Registration Process
First, log in to the official MCC website and sign up using your NEET PG rank and roll number. Fill in all the necessary personal and academic details. Pay the online counselling fee based on your category and the type of medical institution you are applying for. Make sure to complete the registration and fee payment within the allotted week to avoid missing out.
Step 2: Choice Filling and Choice Locking
Once you access the portal after signing up, arrange your college and course preferences from highest to lowest. To make a smart choice, it is highly recommended to check the cutoff scores from previous years. Complete your choice filling within the given week. Always remember to lock your choices manually, though the system will automatically finalize your saved selections once the deadline passes.
Step 3: Seat Allocation
Your locked choices will be processed during the seat allotment week. The MCC will officially assign you a seat based entirely on your NEET PG rank, your reservation category, and the preference order you submitted.
Step 4: Reporting to Your Allocated College
Selected candidates must travel and report to their allotted medical colleges within the designated reporting week. When reporting for admission, you must carry all your original documents, a set of photocopies, the fee payment receipt, and your official allotment letter. If you fail to report within the given timeline, the authorities will cancel your allotted seat, and you will have to wait to try again in the next round of NEET PG Counselling.
Important Details for the NEET PG Counselling Schedule 2026
The central MCC NEET PG Counselling takes place in four distinct rounds. Each round has a specific timeline for registration, choice filling, seat allotment, and college reporting. The fourth and final phase is formally known as the online stray vacancy round.
Since the exam results are expected by the end of September, the highly anticipated NEET PG Counselling Schedule 2026 is projected to begin by the third week of October 2026. The entire admission process will wrap up with the final stray vacancy round in early 2027.
The tables below show the expected week-wise timeline for registration and choice filling across all four rounds:
Round 1
Events
Expected Timeline
Registration for NEET PG Counselling
Third week of October 2026
Choice filling and locking
Fourth week of October 2026
Result date for seat allotment
First week of November 2026
Reporting and admission date
First to second week of November 2026
Round 2
Events
Expected Timeline
Registration for NEET PG Counselling
Third week of November 2026
Choice filling and locking
Third to fourth week of November 2026
Result date for seat allotment
Fourth week of November 2026
Reporting and admission date
First week of December 2026
Round 3
Events
Expected Timeline
Registration for NEET PG Counselling
Second week of December 2026
Choice filling and locking
Second week of December 2026
Result date for seat allotment
Third week of December 2026
Reporting and admission date
Third to fourth week of December 2026
Round 4 (Online Stray Vacancy Round)
Events
Expected Timeline
Registration for NEET PG Counselling
First week of January 2027
Choice filling and locking
First week of January 2027
Result date for seat allotment
Second week of January 2027
Reporting and admission date
Second to third week of January 2027
What documents are required when reporting for NEET PG 2026?
Eligible candidates must submit specific documents when reporting to their allotted medical colleges. These include your photo ID proof, MBBS degree certificates and mark sheets, birth certificate, NEET PG admit card and scorecard, the official allotment letter issued by the MCC, and your internship completion certificate.
When reporting to the allotted college for admission confirmation, you need to carry these crucial documents in their original form along with self-attested photocopies. Keep the following documents handy:
Admit Card and Scorecard of NEET PG
Valid Photo ID Proof like Aadhaar Card, PAN Card, or Passport
Category or Caste Certificate if applicable
Birth Proof like a Birth Certificate or Class 10 Certificate
MCC issued Allotment Letter
MBBS Degree Certificate and all year-wise Mark Sheets
Permanent or Provisional Registration Certificate issued by the NMC or State Medical Council
Certificate of Internship Completion
Disability Certificate if applicable
What are the Registration Fees for MCC NEET PG Counselling?
The registration fee for MCC NEET PG Counselling varies based on your reservation category and the type of institution you are applying to. For instance, General category candidates must pay a non-refundable application fee of ₹1,000 for All India Quota seats and ₹5,000 for Deemed Universities. The application charges are comparatively lower for SC, ST, and OBC candidates.
Below is the detailed fee structure, which includes the non-refundable application fee and the refundable security deposit:
Category of Candidates
Fee for Deemed Universities
Fee for All India Quota (AIQ)
Application fee for General candidates
₹5,000
₹1,000
Security deposit for General candidates
₹2,00,000
₹25,000
Application fee for SC, ST, or OBC
₹5,000
₹500
Security deposit for SC, ST, or OBC
₹2,00,000
₹10,000
(Note: The security deposit for Deemed Universities remains ₹2,00,000 for all candidates regardless of their category.)
FAQs about MCC NEET PG Counselling
Where is MCC NEET PG counselling conducted?
The entire MCC NEET PG counselling process is conducted online via the official website mcc.nic.in. This portal handles registration, choice filling, and seat allotment. Candidates only need to report physically to their allotted medical colleges for document verification and admission confirmation after the allotment results are declared.
Do I need to register again for each counselling round?
No, registration for MCC NEET PG counselling is generally a one time process. Candidates who registered in Round 1 can skip registering again for Round 2 or Round 3. However, fresh registrations are permitted in the initial rounds if you missed Round 1. Please note that fresh registrations are usually closed by the final stray vacancy round.
Who conducts NEET PG counselling for AIQ seats?
The Medical Counselling Committee conducts the counselling for the 50 percent All India Quota seats in MD, MS, and Diploma courses across government colleges. They also handle 100 percent of the seats in Deemed Universities, Central Universities, and ESIC hospitals. State authorities separately handle the remaining 50 percent state quota seats.
What is the eligibility for MCC PG counselling?
Candidates must qualify the NEET PG 2026 exam, hold a recognized MBBS degree with a completed one year internship, and possess a valid NMC or State Medical Council registration. Since AIQ seats are purely merit based, you do not need any state domicile certificate to participate.
Can choices be edited after locking in MCC NEET PG counselling?
No, you cannot make any changes once you lock your choices on the MCC portal. You are free to edit or rearrange your college preferences before the deadline. If you forget to lock them manually, the system automatically locks your most recently saved preferences at the deadline.
How many choices can a student fill in for MCC NEET PG counselling?
During the choice-filling window, candidates can enter an unlimited number of college and course preferences from the available seat matrix. It is highly advisable to enter as many choices as possible in your order of priority to maximize your chances of getting a seat.
What happens if a student skips Round 1 of MCC counselling?
If you do not register or participate in Round 1, you remain completely eligible to register freshly and participate in the subsequent rounds, such as Round 2 or Round 3, as long as you meet the eligibility criteria and register within the specific open windows.
Is the security deposit refundable for MCC NEET PG counselling?
Yes, the security deposit is fully refundable if you do not get any seat allotted throughout the process or if you join your allotted seat and complete the admission formalities. However, your deposit will be forfeited if you are allotted a seat in Round 2 or later and choose to leave it without following the official exit rules. Refunds are processed only after all counselling rounds conclude.
What documents are required for MCC Counselling 2026?
You must prepare original and self-attested photocopies of key documents, including your NEET PG admit card, scorecard, valid photo ID like an Aadhaar Card or Passport, MBBS degree with mark sheets, internship completion certificate, NMC registration, and category certificates if applicable.
How to lock choices in MCC counselling 2026?
To lock your choices, you must first finish adding and arranging your preferences on the MCC portal within the allotted time. Once you review your final list, click the Lock Choices option before the deadline. If you miss this step, the system automatically locks your last saved choices when the time runs out.
Conclusion
The MCC NEET PG counselling registration helps eligible candidates secure their postgraduate seats in MD, MS, or Diploma courses. Candidates must have a thorough knowledge of the counselling procedure, choice filling, timelines, seat allocation, etc.
However, before all these, you need to clear the NEET PG exam successfully. In this regard, you need professional assistance, such as DocTutorials, to help you clear the exam in one go. We provide crisp videos, clinical Qbank, mind maps, flash cards, exam-focused notes, etc., to prepare the aspirants for NEET PG.
For more guidance, join DocTutorials and explore our NEET PG course today!
Preparing for the NEET PG 2026 can be an overwhelming journey because of its vast syllabus and the pressure to…
Earwax Blockage: Causes, Symptoms, Risk Factors, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Human beings rely on five primary sense organs, and the ear is one of them. It plays a critical role in both hearing and maintaining balance. The glands in the ear canal secrete an oily wax that keeps our ears clean by trapping dirt and germs.
However, when the amount of secretion exceeds the normal level, it can block the ear canal. This leads to earwax blockage. Keep on reading to learn about earwax blockage, its causes and symptoms, and the associated treatment.
What is Earwax Blockage?
When the earwax builds up in the ears beyond the normal amount, causing itching, ear pain, and other issues, it is known as an earwax blockage.
Medically known as “Cerumen Impaction”, earwax blockage is a condition in which the cerumen builds up in the ear beyond normal levels, blocking the ear canals and causing ear pain and itching. In severe cases, earwax blockage can cause hearing loss if left untreated.
Cerumen, or earwax, is a waxy oil that is produced by the glands present in the ear canal that help to keep the inner ear clean and protect it from infections.
Who is at Risk of Developing Earwax Blockage?
Anyone can develop an earwax blockage; however, people with certain conditions, such as hypertrichosis, developmental disabilities, eczema, misshapen ear canals, etc., are more prone to ceruminous impaction.
Earwax blockage can happen to anyone, regardless of age or gender. However, it is more commonly seen in children, affecting 10% children and 5% adults. The following section lists the people who are more prone towards developing earwax blockage:
People with hypertrichosis or hairy ears.
People who use foreign bodies, such as cotton swabs or other sharp objects, to clean their ears.
People above the age of 55.
People using hearing aids or earplugs.
People with developmental disabilities.
People with skin conditions like Eczema.
People with misshapen ear canals.
What are the Causes and Risk Factors of Earwax Blockage?
Some causes of earwax blockage include hypertrichosis, hard ceruminous debris, narrow ear canals, and the regular use of foreign bodies to clean the ear. Apart from these, risk factors such as recurrent ear infections also contribute to cerumen impaction.
The majority of people suffer from earwax blockage only because their glands naturally produce more cerumen. However, some other causes of cerumen impaction are:
Having hard cerumen
Having hairy ears
Having narrow ear canals
Wearing earplugs and hearing aids
Putting cotton swabs into the ears regularly
Apart from the causes, certain risk factors make people prone towards impacted cerumen, such as:
Bony growths or osteomas
Recurrent ear infections
Frequent exposure to water
Males are at a higher risk than females
Psoriasis or dermatitis
What are the Symptoms and Diagnosis of Earwax Blockage?
The symptoms of earwax blockage include ear pain, hearing loss, ear itching, dizziness, and a feeling of fullness, which help diagnose the condition. The physician also uses an otoscope to examine the buildup of cerumen.
The primary symptom of earwax blockage is ear pain, which may or may not be associated with the following symptoms:
Ear ache
A feeling of fullness in the ears
Hearing loss, where the condition deteriorates over time
Ringing in the ears or tinnitus
Itching in the ears
Discharge from the ear
Dizziness
Ear infections
Earwax blockage is diagnosed based on the above symptoms and a few other tests that are mentioned below:
Complete physical examination, including the Weber and Rinne tests.
An ear examination by the physician using an otoscope to check the amount of wax buildup.
What are the Treatment Options for Earwax Blockage?
Earwax blockage can be treated at home using earwax-dissolving solutions and ear irrigation, and at healthcare centres by trained staff.
Earwax blockage, if not treated in time, can cause hearing loss that worsens over time. Go through the following section to learn about the several methods to treat cerumen impaction at home:
Regular and Proper Cleaning of Ears: Use a washcloth to clean the outer area of your ear, and don’t forget to dry your ears after a shower properly. Don’t use sharp objects or safety pins to clean your ears.
Use Earwax-Dissolving Solutions: Using cerumenolytic solutions such as glycerin, mineral oil, baby oil, or saline helps soften hard impacted earwax. These solutions should be applied sparingly to the affected ear by lying on the opposite side.
Ear Irrigation: After softening the earwax with cerumenolytic solutions, use a syringe to rinse the ear with water or saline, then gently irrigate with a bulb syringe.
In-office Earwax Removal: If the impaction is severe, visit your nearest healthcare centre, and the physician will remove it using special instruments such as a cerumen spoon, forceps, or a suction device.
What is the Prognosis of Earwax Blockage?
The prognosis for earwax blockage is good if treated promptly, but if left untreated, the person may suffer from severe infection and pain.
Once cleared, the person may again suffer from earwax blockage, and the hearing loss is temporary and partial. Hearing returns gradually after the impaction is cleared. People using hearing aids should get themselves checked every 3 to 6 months.
FAQs about Earwax Blockage
How do you unblock a waxed ear?
Soften the earwax with the ceruminolytic ear drops, then clean the ear with gentle irrigation.
Will the earwax blockage clear on its own?
Asymptomatic earwax blockage can clear on its own, but ceruminous impaction with clinical manifestations requires intervention by a skilled healthcare professional.
How can I tell if I have an earwax blockage?
Some of the signs and symptoms of earwax blockage are:
Earache
Ringing or noises in the ear
Dizziness
Decreased hearing
Coughing
Is earwax removal painful?
No, earwax removal is not painful if performed correctly by a skilled staff member.
How does a doctor remove earwax?
If the condition is severe, the doctor uses special instruments, such as a ceruminolytic spoon, suction, or forceps, to remove earwax.
Conclusion
Impacted earwax is a minor ailment that can worsen over time if left untreated. If not treated or cleared on time, the earwax blockage can cause a severe earache or infection that may lead to permanent hearing loss.
Maintain hygiene and keep your ears clean and healthy to prevent other chronic ear diseases that may affect your hearing and balance.
To understand more such complex NEET PG concepts easily, join DocTutorials today and explore our NEET PG course to excel in your career!
Achieving the dream of becoming a doctor is not easy. You need to be determined and have the right mindset…
Hereditary Spherocytosis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Hereditary spherocytosis is a foundational topic in Pathology, representing a unique intersection among genetics, membrane biology, and clinical presentation. It is a complex process in which a defect in the RBC membrane transforms the cell’s normal biconcave shape into a highly vulnerable, fragile sphere.
This structural transformation triggers continuous hemolysis, leading to jaundice and splenomegaly, making it both clinically significant and a very informative topic in pathology. The study of hereditary spherocytosis is necessary to enhance your knowledge of hemolytic anaemias.
Keep reading for a detailed analysis.
What is Hereditary Spherocytosis?
Hereditary spherocytosis is one of the inherited hemolytic anaemias resulting from a defective membrane protein of the RBC. Consequently, rigid and spherical red blood cells are formed. These spherocytes get trapped within the spleen and subsequently destroyed, leading to chronic extravascular hemolysis.
Hereditary spherocytosis is a genetic hemolytic anaemia due to inherited abnormalities of the RBC membrane component. Such proteins may include spectrin, ankyrin, and band 3 (4.2) protein. Structural defects weaken the RBC membrane, leading to the sequential loss of its parts.
As a result, red blood cells gradually assume a more spherical shape, becoming spherocytes that are smaller, denser, and more inflexible than normal biconcave RBCs.
Since spherocytes do not assume the normal shape, they cannot easily navigate the complex meshwork channels of the cords of Billroth, which traps them and eventually destroys them mechanically via splenic macrophages. This pathway produces chronic extravascular hemolysis as a hallmark of hereditary spherocytosis.
What are the Types of Hereditary Spherocytosis?
Hereditary spherocytosis presents clinical types based on the degree of anaemia, the amount of hemolysis, and the total number of symptoms. This classification helps inform management intervention decisions, including whether to transfuse or perform a splenectomy.
Here is the table showing the clinical classification of Hereditary Spherocytosis based on severity:
Severity
Haemoglobin (Approx.)
Reticulocyte Count
Symptoms
Splenomegaly
Mild HS
11–15 g/dL
Slightly increased
Often asymptomatic or with only mild symptoms.
Mild
Moderate HS
8–12 g/dL
Markedly elevated
Anaemia, intermittent jaundice, and fatigue.
Moderate
Severe HS
<8 g/dL
Very high
Significant anaemia, requiring transfusions, gallstones, and growth delay.
Prominent
What are the Causes of Hereditary Spherocytosis?
Hereditary spherocytosis arises from inherited defects in RBC membrane proteins that cause membrane instability and progressive loss of surface area. The result will be the transformation of red cells into inflexible spherocytes that predominantly get destroyed in the spleen, leading to chronic hemolysis.
Hereditary spherocytosis is caused by inherited mutations of genes encoding key red blood cell membrane proteins. These proteins are responsible for strength and elasticity, thereby supporting the stability and flexibility of the RBC membrane.
The most common defects include:
Spectrin (α or β chains)
Ankyrin
Band 3 protein
Protein 4.2
These proteins attach the cytoskeletal network to the lipid bilayer. If any of them is abnormal or deficient, there will be weaker vertical connections between the two layers. This instability results in a progressive loss of membrane fragments and a reduction in the RBC’s surface area while its volume remains constant.
Hence, it changes into a spherocyte, which is typically rigid and unable to deform. Spherocytes cannot flex and extend as healthy biconcave red blood cells do, so they cannot easily pass through the splenic sinusoids.
The spleen detects them as defective and begins removing them from the circulation, initiating extravascular hemolysis. Most cases follow an autosomal dominant inheritance, meaning a single mutated allele is sufficient to cause disease.
The remaining cases are autosomal recessive, usually producing more severe forms due to the complete loss of functional protein.
What are the Risk Factors of Hereditary Spherocytosis?
The most significant risks for hereditary spherocytosis are in families, since this disease has a strong predilection towards autosomal dominant inheritance. It is more prevalent among individuals of Northern European descent, though it can be observed worldwide and can also result from de novo mutations.
Several factors predispose one to get hereditary spherocytosis, primarily because it is a genetic disease:
Family History
One of the major risk factors is having a parent with the condition since most cases are autosomal dominant. Affected individuals transmit the mutation to their offspring in half of the cases. Autosomal recessive cases also occur and are identified when carrier parents, who do not show any symptoms, have an affected child.
Genetic Ancestry
Northern European populations show higher frequencies, although reports indicate a dominant occurrence of hereditary spherocytosisin Japanese families, North Africa, Brazil, and worldwide. In any ethnic group, the condition may manifest itself despite regional clustering.
Spontaneous Mutations
Around one-fourth of cases arise from new (de novo) mutations in RBC membrane protein genes, even without a family history.
Early Neonatal Jaundice
Babies who show frequent jaundice soon after birth, especially if it is out of proportion to physiological expectations, may be at increased risk of harbouring hereditary spherocytosis that will declare itself with recurrent hemolytic episodes later in life.
What are the Symptoms of Hereditary Spherocytosis?
Hereditary spherocytosis may present with common anaemia, jaundice, and splenomegaly since it is a chronic hemolytic process, but patients can also develop pigment gallstones or severe neonatal jaundice.
The severity of symptoms in hereditary spherocytosis ranges from asymptomatic to severe hemolytic disease, depending on the degree of membrane protein deficiency.
Common clinical symptoms include:
Anaemia
Patients often present with signs such as fatigue, pallor, reduced exercise capacity, and irritability in children. These symptoms may worsen during infections due to increased hemolysis.
Jaundice
Elevated unconjugated bilirubin from ongoing RBC breakdown leads to scleral icterus and yellowish skin discolouration. Intermittent jaundice is especially common in adolescents and adults with hereditary spherocytosis.
Splenomegaly
In patients with hereditary spherocytosis, the spleen enlarges and becomes soft as it continuously clears spherocytes from the circulation. Persistent splenic trapping contributes to chronic hemolysis.
Pigment Gallstones
Chronic bilirubin overproduction predisposes patients, often in adolescence or early adulthood, to black pigment gallstones, which may present with abdominal pain.
Severe Neonatal Jaundice
Newborns with hereditary spherocytosis may experience marked hyperbilirubinemia requiring phototherapy or, in rare cases, exchange transfusion.
Aplastic Crisis
A sudden drop in RBC production, most frequently triggered by Parvovirus B19, can cause profound anaemia. This is a medical emergency and a classic complication in hereditary hemolytic disorders.
How is Hereditary Spherocytosis Diagnosed?
The diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis is made based on clinical and laboratory findings, confirmed by specific tests. The findings include evidence for hemolysis, typical red cell morphology, and the exclusion of other causes.
Here is the table summarising the diagnostic tests for Hereditary spherocytosis (HS):
Test
What it Assesses
Finding in HS
Clinical Relevance
Peripheral Smear
RBC morphology
Spherocytes, polychromasia
First clue: visual identification of characteristic cells.
Supports diagnosis; high MCHC is a hallmark of HS.
Reticulocyte Count
Bone marrow response
Elevated
Indicates active hemolysis (red cell destruction).
Osmotic Fragility Test
Red cell membrane stability
Increased fragility (hemolysis at higher saline concentration)
Classical test: spherocytes lyse easily in a hypotonic solution.
EMA Binding Test (Flow Cytometry)
Band 3 protein (anion exchanger)
Decreased fluorescence
Most sensitive screening test; assesses deficiency of key membrane proteins.
Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)
Presence of antibodies on RBCs
Negative
Differentiates HS from Autoimmune Hemolytic Anaemia (AIHA), where it is positive.
What are the Treatment Options for Hereditary Spherocytosis?
Treatment of hereditary spherocytosis runs from supportive care, which includes folic acid supplementation and regular monitoring, to definitive treatment, i.e., splenectomy in moderate to severe cases. Splenectomy greatly reduces hemolysis and improves symptoms.
The various treatment options for Hereditary Spherocytosis include the following:
Supportive Measures
Hereditary spherocytosis is initially managed with supportive therapy, as continuous red blood cell destruction increases the marrow’s need to produce new ones. Supportive therapy involves:
Folic acid supplementation to maintain adequate erythropoiesis in the setting of chronic hemolysis.
Routine monitoring for progressive anaemia, increasing jaundice, and early signs of hemolytic or aplastic crises.
Paediatric follow-up, especially in younger patients, to assess growth, splenic enlargement, and overall disease progression.
Splenectomy (Definitive Treatment)
When symptoms become significant, such as persistent anaemia, marked jaundice, or recurrent crises, splenectomy becomes the primary definitive option.
Partial splenectomy may be considered in children to reduce infection risk. Splenectomy is regarded as the first-line treatment because:
Reduces hemolysis by removing the organ where abnormal RBCs are predominantly destroyed.
Recommended for moderate to severe cases, or when complications like growth failure or frequent transfusions occur.
Can be performed as a total or partial splenectomy, based on age and risk–benefit considerations.
Cholecystectomy
Long-standing hemolysis increases the bilirubin load, predisposing patients to pigment gallstone formation.
Symptomatic stones can cause abdominal pain, jaundice, or biliary obstruction; hence, timely surgical management through cholecystectomy is important. Cholecystectomy is considered for:
Patients with symptomatic pigment gallstones or recurrent biliary colic.
Often performed simultaneously with splenectomy to minimise hospitalisation and prevent future biliary complications.
Blood Transfusions
Some patients may experience sudden worsening of anaemia, especially during viral illnesses such as Parvovirus B19 infection. In these situations, transfusion support becomes essential until the bone marrow recovers.
Blood transfusions are:
Used in episodes of severe anaemia when haemoglobin drops rapidly.
Commonly required during aplastic crisis, where temporary suppression of erythropoiesis occurs.
Usually, a short-term measure, as needs decrease significantly after splenectomy.
What are the Complications of Hereditary Spherocytosis?
Hereditary spherocytosis, if left untreated, will eventually lead to progressive hemolytic anaemia, pigment gallstones, and a life-threatening aplastic crisis. Chronic folate deficiency may precipitate megaloblastic changes.
The lack of recognition and appropriate management of hereditary spherocytosis can result in not only the continued destruction of red blood cells (RBCs) along with metabolic strain, but also multiple short and long-term complications.
These are:
Extreme Hemolytic Anaemia
The ongoing destruction of RBCs may exceed the bone marrow’s capacity to compensate, leading to severe anaemia with fatigue, pallor, and limited ability to exercise.
Pigment Gallstones
Chronic hemolysis creates large amounts of unconjugated bilirubin, which is typically stored in the liver. This excess bilirubin can form black pigment gallstones, leading to biliary colic, cholecystitis, or obstructive jaundice.
Aplastic Crisis
Infection with Parvovirus B19 may transiently decrease the rate of erythropoiesis by destroying erythrocyte progenitors in the bone marrow, leading to an abrupt and life-threatening decline in haemoglobin levels.
This situation is considered to be a medical emergency in patients with hereditary hemolytic disorders.
A Megaloblastic Crisis
An increase in marrow activity leads to an increased demand for folate; when the demand for folate exceeds the available supply, folate deficiency will ultimately lead to megaloblastic changes in the marrow and to further deterioration of anaemia and impairment of the formation of RBCs.
Growth Delay in Children
Untreated through proper medical monitoring, chronic anaemia and the increased metabolic burden will typically slow down physical development and delay important developmental milestones in children.
Pulmonary Hypertension (Uncommon)
Prolonged episodes of hemolysis can impact endothelial cell function and result in the depletion of nitric oxide, placing certain patients at risk for the development of pulmonary hypertension in acute or chronic settings.
FAQs about Hereditary Spherocytosis
1. Is hereditary spherocytosis always inherited?
This does not always happen. Approximately 25% of patients with hereditary spherocytosis have no familial history of this condition. The other 75% of cases are inherited from an affected parent.
2. Are spherocytes pathognomonic for hereditary spherocytosis?
Spherocytes are not exclusively pathogenic to hereditary spherocytosis but are also seen in autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Therefore, to differentiate between hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, it is essential to perform a Direct Antiglobulin test.
3. Can hereditary spherocytosis be cured?
There is no genetic cure for hereditary spherocytosis. However, a splenectomy can substantially decrease hemolysis and improve symptoms. Although the membrane defect will remain the same.
4. Is splenectomy safe in children?
Splenectomy is usually delayed until after the child has reached 5 years of age to minimise the risk of severe infections. Immunisations and other methods to minimise infection are usually administered before and after splenectomy.
5. Why is MCHC increased in hereditary spherocytosis?
Hereditary spherocytosis causes a decreased surface area of the RBC membrane, resulting in less total intracellular fluid (H2O) within each RBC. The decrease in H2O leads to increased total Hb concentration in each RBC, thereby causing the MCHC to be elevated compared to normal erythrocytes.
Conclusion
Hereditary spherocytosis is classified as a genetic hemolytic anaemia that creates spherocyte production and red blood cell destruction within the spleen. The patient outcome can be improved with an early diagnosis, folic acid supplementation, and timely surgical intervention, through performing a splenectomy, cholecystectomy, or blood transfusions.
NEET-PG requires candidates to know the definitions of molecular defects, diagnostic tests, and clinical complications related to hereditary spherocytosis. For added guidance, DocTutorials can be your study partner. We offer crisp videos, clinical Qbank, exam-focused notes, flashcards, and mindmaps to ensure aspirants are well-prepared and gain complete clarity over complex NEET PG concepts. Join DocTutorials today and explore our NEET PG course to excel in your medical career!
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If you’re preparing for NEET PG 2025, it’s just as important to understand the seat matrix as it is to perform well in the exam. With thousands of PG seats across government, private, deemed, DNB, and CPS institutions, knowing where opportunities exist can help you plan smarter and improve your chances during counselling.
The NEET PG Seat Matrix 2025 gives a complete picture of total seats, state-wise distribution, speciality-wise availability, and quota-based allocation. From AIQ vs State Quota seats to speciality-wise numbers released by NMC, this guide simplifies everything you need to know before counselling starts.
Read below to learn more.
Click here to download the NEET PG Seat Matrix 2025 Counselling
What is the Allocation Process for NEET PG Seat Matrix?
The NEET PG seat allocation process begins after the cut-off, when NBE releases the merit list and eligible candidates join counselling. MCC and state authorities then allot seats based on your rank, choices, and the seat categories. NMC has listed 49,907–52,173 PG seats across specialities, so knowing which branches have more seats helps you choose more wisely.
The NEET PG seat allocation starts after the cut-off scores are announced. Based on this cut-off, NBE prepares a merit list for the 50% All India Quota. This includes the names of candidates who are allowed to move to the counselling stage. If your name is on the list, you are one step closer to admission.
Counselling is the place where the actual seat allotment takes place. MCC handles the counselling for 50% AIQ seats, Deemed and Central Universities, and ESIC/AFMS institutes. The remaining 50% state quota seats fall under the counselling authority of each state itself.
Since both processes run independently, candidates must be attentive and follow the right schedule. You have to register at MCC’s official website, pay the fee for counselling, and fill in your course-college choices to enrol in NEET PG Counselling.
After the choice-filling period, MCC releases the seat allotment list. Seats are given as per your rank in the All India Rank List and your submitted preferences. It is quite straightforward: higher rank plus smart choices usually mean better chances.
MCC conducts 4 rounds of counselling for AIQ seats:
Round 1
Round 2
Mop-up Round
Stray Vacancy Round
Each round gives candidates another chance at securing a seat, so you must not miss any important dates or announcements.
What are the Key NEET PG Seat Categories?
Before selecting colleges or filling choices, it’s important to understand the different categories under which NEET PG seats are offered. Each of these categories has its own rules, counselling process, and type of college. Knowing what they mean can help you avoid confusion later and plan more effectively.
Category
What it Means
All India Quota (AIQ)
50% of the seats from government colleges are nationally pooled and allotted through MCC counselling.
State Quota
50% of seats are reserved for candidates from that particular state (as per domicile rules).
Deemed Universities
Seats available in private deemed medical universities; candidates from all over India are eligible.
DNB Quota
College of Physicians & Surgeons seats are available only in select states where CPS programs are approved.
CPS Quota
College of Physicians & Surgeons seats, available only in select states where CPS programs are approved.
To view the complete and updated NEET PG seat matrix for 2025, candidates can visit the official MCC website, where the full AIQ, Deemed, Central University, DNB, and CPS seat matrices are uploaded before each counselling round.
What is the Specialisation Breakdown for NEET PG Seat Matrix?
It can be confusing to choose a PG branch when one doesn’t even know how many seats are available in each speciality. So, here is a simple breakdown of the latest available numbers for NEET PG 2025.
You’ll notice that some branches have a huge number of seats, while others barely have a few. That’s why knowing this breakdown helps you see where competition might be high and where you may have better chances.
As per the 2025 NEET PG seat matrix released by NMC, compiled across government and private colleges, 49,907 MD/MS/PG Diploma seats are available across 68 specialities. Later, the NMC released updated broad-speciality numbers showing 52,173 seats for the 2025–26 session.
Particulars
Details
Total PG Seats (2025)
49,907 seats available for NEET PG counselling
Courses Included
MD, MS, and PG Diploma programmes
MD – General Medicine
5,469 seats
MD – Anaesthesiology
4,947 seats
MD – Paediatrics
3,527 seats
MD – Pathology
2,916 seats
MD – Radio Diagnosis
2,659 seats
MD – Biophysics
1 seat
MS – General Surgery
4,915 seats
MS – Obstetrics & Gynaecology
4,060 seats
MS – Ophthalmology
2,057 seats
PG Diploma – Anaesthesia
93 seats
PG Diploma – Ophthalmology
53 seats
These numbers indicate that branches such as General Medicine, Anaesthesia, Paediatrics, Pathology, and Radiodiagnosis have more seats. So your chances don’t disappear even if your rank isn’t extremely high.
On the other hand, some para-clinical, non-clinical, and niche branches have few seats, at times even in single digits. So, the competition gets tougher there, and the choice-filling matters a lot.
So, knowing the specialisation-wise distribution will help you:
Understand which branches are highly available.
Plan your choices more smartly.
Avoid guessing or choosing blindly.
See where you’ll have a realistic chance based on your rank.
NEET PG Seats Across India (AIQ vs State Quota)
The number of NEET PG seats has gone up across the country, with new medical colleges opening and many states expanding their PG quota. Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, and Telangana collectively offer the largest number of PG seats in government and private institutions.
NEET PG seats have increased significantly in the last few years. Since new medical colleges have opened and many states have increased seat capacity, candidates now have more chances than before. So even though the competition’s still tough, the overall opportunity has definitely expanded.
Here’s a quick breakdown:
State / UT
No. of Colleges
Government PG Seats
Private PG Seats
Andhra Pradesh
37
1923
1645
Arunachal Pradesh
1
0
0
Andaman & Nicobar Islands
1
0
0
Assam
13
738
0
Bihar
21
908
321
Chandigarh
1
585
0
Chattisgarh
14
475
114
Dadra & Nagar Haveli
1
0
0
Delhi
10
2889
49
Goa
1
137
0
Gujarat
40
2186
724
Haryana
15
432
465
Himachal Pradesh
8
264
92
Jammu & Kashmir
12
606
51
Jharkhand
9
263
0
Karnataka
70
1856
4593
Kerala
33
1077
868
Madhya Pradesh
27
1489
859
Maharashtra
68
3576
2498
Manipur
4
255
0
Meghalaya
1
37
0
Mizoram
1
0
0
Nagaland
1
0
0
Odisha
17
725
509
Puducherry
9
314
720
Punjab
12
408
384
Rajasthan
35
2255
1033
Sikkim
1
0
34
Tamil Nadu
74
2765
2369
Telangana
56
1504
1608
Tripura
2
85
6
Uttar Pradesh
68
2301
1919
Uttarakhand
8
1572
260
West Bengal
35
1791
297
FAQs about NEET PG Seat Matrix 2025
1. Who handles NEET PG seat counselling?
For the 50% All India Quota, Deemed Universities, Central Universities, ESIC, and AFMS institutes, the Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) runs the entire counselling process.
For the remaining 50% state quota seats, each state’s counselling authority handles registration, choice-filling, and allotment. So basically, MCC manages national-level seats, and states manage their own seats.
2. What is the NEET PG seat allocation process?
Seat allocation starts after the NEET PG results when the NBE releases the merit list. Candidates who qualify can join counselling. You have to register online, pay the fee, and pick your preferred colleges and courses. Then MCC or the state authority prepares the allotment list based on your rank, choices, and seat availability.
If you get a seat, you must report to the college on time for document verification, or the seat will move to the next round. The whole process has multiple rounds—Round 1, Round 2, Mop-Up, and Stray Vacancy—so there are several chances to get a seat.
3. How has the availability of NEET PG seats changed lately?
NEET PG seats have increased significantly over the last decade. Since new medical colleges opened, existing colleges have added more PG departments, DNB and CPS seats have expanded, and the total number of seats has grown significantly.
In fact, seats increased by over 127%, rising from around 31,000 in 2014 to more than 70,000 by 2025.
4. Which states have the highest number of government & private NEET PG seats?
States like Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, and Telangana generally have the highest number of both government and private PG medical seats.
These states have more medical colleges, strong hospital networks, and large private medical education setups. As a result, they attract many PG candidates every year.
5. What happens if a candidate fails to report to the allotted college?
If a candidate doesn’t report within the given time, the seat gets cancelled for that round. It’s then offered to someone else in the next round.
In some cases—especially in Round 2—you might not even get your fee refunded, so you must be careful. So if you get a seat and want to keep it, you must report on time with all required documents.
6. What is the NEET PG Seat Matrix?
The NEET PG seat matrix refers to the total number of postgraduate medical seats available for counselling across government colleges, private colleges, deemed universities, DNB institutes, and other participating institutions. It shows course-wise, college-wise, and quota-wise seat distribution and is released before each counselling round to guide choice filling.
7. What are the major seat categories in NEET PG counselling?
Major NEET PG counselling seat categories include All India Quota (AIQ), State Quota, Deemed University seats, Central University seats, Armed Forces Medical Services seats, and DNB seats. Counselling is conducted for 50% AIQ government seats and 100% seats of deemed, central, and certain institutional categories.
8. Which NEET PG specialisations are most popular?
The most popular NEET PG specialisations generally include clinical branches such as General Medicine, Radiology, Obstetrics & Gynaecology, Dermatology, Paediatrics, and General Surgery. These branches attract higher ranks due to better clinical exposure, career flexibility, and strong long-term demand in healthcare systems.
9. Which Seat Category Should Be Preferred First in NEET PG Counselling?
Candidates should generally prioritise government seats under the All India or State Quota first due to lower fees and better clinical exposure. After this, candidates may consider deemed university, private, or DNB seats based on rank, financial feasibility, and specialisation preference. Final choice depends on career goals and counselling strategy.
10. How many NEET PG seats are available in 2025?
For the 2025 academic cycle, India had approximately 52,173 total PG medical seats, including about 29,447 government seats and 22,726 private seats, after new seat additions approved by authorities. Seat numbers change each year due to approvals, withdrawals, or expansion of medical colleges.
Conclusion
Understanding the NEET PG seat matrix is just as important as preparing for the exam itself. When you know the total seats, state-wise availability, quota distribution, and speciality-wise trends, you can plan smarter during counselling and make choices that match your rank and goals.
If you need reliable guidance while preparing for NEET PG, DocTutorials offers crisp videos, clinical Qbank, exam-focused notes, flashcards, and mind maps. This ensures that aspirants are fully prepared right before the NEET PG exam.
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Every prospective medical student must understand the NEET PG branch-wise cut-off. This is because it represents the minimum marks required to qualify for each MD, MS, and Diploma speciality across all government and private medical colleges in India.
The NEET PG branch-wise cut-off 2026 provides you with the information necessary to determine your options, prepare for counselling in a timely and well-organised way, and align your studies with the level of competitors in your desired medical speciality.
Keep reading for a detailed insight into the NEET 2026 cut-off marks.
Why is it Essential to Understand NEET PG 2026 Cut-Off Marks?
The NEET PG 2026 branch-wise cut-offs serve as an early warning for your admission chances evaluation and a way to plan more effectively. With clear-cut insights, you can approach preparation and counselling with better clarity and confidence.
Knowing the NEET PG 2026 branch-wise cut-off marks is crucial because your eligibility for MD, MS, and PG Diploma programmes depends on how your score compares to these cut-off levels.
The cut-off acts as an initial filter in the counselling and seat allocation process, and being aware of this helps you evaluate and comprehend your admission chances well ahead of time.
You will be able to set a realistic score target for yourself, plan an effective strategy for preparation, and make a suitable decision about which medical speciality you want to pursue by having a proper idea of the expected branch-wise cut-offs.
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The NEET PG 2026 cut-off will act as the doorway to postgraduate medical admissions. Be it competitive branches like Radiology, Dermatology, or General Medicine, or broader clinical fields such as Paediatrics or Obstetrics & Gynaecology, the NEET PG branch-wise cut-off 2026 will be majorly influential in shaping your admission possibilities.
The NEET PG 2026 cut-off is crucial for all medical students desiring to sit for the exam. Below is a detailed description of how branch-wise cut-offs work, what influences these cut-offs, and what you may expect in 2026:
Branch / Speciality
Expected Cut-off Marks (2026)
Radiology
545
General Medicine
535
Dermatology
550
Obstetrics and Gynaecology
500
Paediatrics
510
ENT (Ear, Nose, and Throat)
440
Surgery
480
Orthopaedics
490
Pulmonary Medicine
495
Ophthalmology
450
Anaesthesiology
460
NEET PG 2026: Key Details You Should Know
From April 2026, the NEET PG 2026 registration is likely to beopened, and NBEMS is going to hold the exam in 210 minutes with 180 questions. Knowing the exam structure with the marking scheme, total marks, and eligibility criteria helps students in making their preparations more systematic.
Apart from the NEET PG 2026 cut-off, it is crucial to verify the examination’s key details beforehand. The NEET PG 2026 registration is likely to commence in the first week of April 2026, and you can fill out the application form on the official NBEMS portal.
If you meet the eligibility parameters, make sure to register yourself within the stipulated timeline. Here is a quick overview of the necessary details about NEET PG 2026 to help you stay prepared:
Particulars
Details
Frequency of Exam
Once a Year (Annual)
Conducting Authority
National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS)
Exam Duration
3 Hours 30 Minutes (210 Minutes)
Time-Bound Sections
A, B, C, D, and E
Section Distribution
36 questions
Section Time Limits
42 minutes
Application Mode
Online
Total Marks
720
Total Questions
180
Marking Scheme
+4 marks for each right answer -1 mark for each wrong answer 0 marks for unanswered questions
NEET PG Previous Years’ Branch-Wise Cut-Off Marks
Every year, the NEET PG cut-off trends tend to fluctuate. The most highly sought-after branches, such as Radiology, Dermatology, & General Medicine, always remain at the top with the highest cut-offs. On the contrary, Anaesthesiology & Psychiatry have varied ranks. Looking at the branch-wise cut-offs of 2023, 2024, & 2025 will serve as a guide for aspirants in planning their choices for study and college more efficiently.
The NEET PG cut-off marks vary every year owing to several factors. The cut-off scores below from previous years can help you understand the estimated marks required for admission through NEET PG:
What is the NEET PG 2025 Branch-Wise Cut-Off?
The cut-off for NEET PG 2025 was determined based on factors such as the number of candidates who appeared and the exam’s difficulty level. The table below highlights the NEET PG branch-wise cut-off 2025:
Branch
General
OBC
SC
ST
Radiology
545
535
500
443
OBGY
500
475
405
305
Surgery
480
465
385
310
ENT
440
430
370
280
Ophthalmology
450
435
370
295
Orthopaedics
490
480
395
300
Paediatrics
510
485
405
360
Medicine
535
500
435
350
Dermatology
550
515
450
395
Pulmonary
495
500
400
300
What is the NEET PG 2024 Branch-Wise Cut-Off?
The NEET PG 2024 cut-off was set based on factors such as the number of candidates who took the exam and its difficulty level. The table below shows NEET PG branch-wise cut-off 2024, including the minimum qualifying percentile and cut-off marks for each category:
Branch
General
OBC
SC
ST
Radiology
545
535
500
443
Surgery
480
465
385
310
ENT
440
430
370
280
OBS-GYN
500
475
405
305
Medicine
535
500
435
350
Dermatology
550
515
450
395
Paediatrics
510
485
405
360
Ophthalmology
450
435
370
395
Orthopaedics
490
480
395
300
Pulmonary
495
500
400
300
What is the NEET PG 2023 Branch-Wise Cut-Off?
The NEET PG 2023 cut-off was issued separately for the 50% All India Quota and the 50% state quota seats. While MCC provided the cut-off for the All India Quota, separate state-wise cut-offs for various institutions were also issued by respective state authorities.
The overall NEET PG 2023 qualifying marks were 291-720 for General/ EWS, 274 for General PwBD, and 257 for SC/ST/OBC candidates. The NEET PG branch-wisecut-offs 2023 reflect the opening and closing ranks of top medical colleges across India:
Branch / Speciality
Opening Rank
Closing Rank
Radiology / Radio Diagnosis
1
517
Dermatology
29
3770
General Medicine
5
3575
General Surgery
65
3575
Obstetrics and Gynaecology
16
2590
Orthopaedics
134
2127
Paediatrics
144
1883
Psychiatry
696
9616
Anaesthesiology
1558
9370
Note: These previous years’ cut-off marks and opening/closing ranks can provide an idea of the expected score range for securing admission through NEET PG.
FAQs about NEET PG 2026 Branch-Wise Cut Off
What is the NEET PG cut-off for each branch?
The cut-off for NEET PG across different branches is the minimum score required to gain admission to the medical department of one’s choice. It varies from year to year, as it is determined by the exam’s difficulty and students’ overall performance.
Why do NEET PG have a cut-off for every branch?
NEET PGhas a separate cut-off for each branch, ensuring competition is based on merit and maintaining fairness in admissions. The cut-offs are influenced by competition, the number of available seats, the exam’s difficulty, and the popularity of different specialities.
Are NEET PG cut-offs the same for all medical colleges?
No, they are not. NEET PG cut-offs fluctuate from one college to another. The main factors that lead to this difference are whether the college is private or government, its reputation, and the number of seats available. Only those with either the very top scores or ranks will be able to get in.
Will there be any changes to the NEET PG 2026 cut-off?
It is not known yet. However, following the trends of the previous years, the NEET PG 2026 cut-offs may be adjusted on the basis of exam difficulty, student performance, and other factors that influence the cut-off.
Which medical branches have the highest NEET PG cut-off?
Due to high demand, better work–life balance, and excellent earning potential, branches of medicine such as Radiology, Dermatology, General Medicine, and Paediatrics consistently rank among the top cut-offs in NEET PG. Such specialities attract top-ranking candidates every year.
What is the expected NEET PG 2026 Cut Off?
The NEET PG 2026 cut-off is unpredictable, but historically, the qualifying percentile for the General category was the 50th percentile. However, recent policy changes and significant seat vacancies prompted authorities to lower thresholds (e.g., single-digit percentiles in late 2025/early 2026 updates). There may be a wide variation by speciality and category.
How are category-wise qualifying marks determined for NEET PG?
Category-wise qualifying marks for NEET PG are set using percentiles (e.g., General 50th, OBC/SC/ST 40th historically), converted to raw marks based on exam difficulty and cohort performance. Authorities revise these percentiles when seats remain vacant or performance trends shift.
How is the NEET PG Cut Off calculated?
The NEET PG cut-off calculation is based on percentile thresholds determined by examination authorities, along with factors such as exam difficulty, number of candidates, and total available postgraduate seats. Percentiles are converted into raw marks using the score distribution. During counselling, category, quota, and seat matrix are applied to determine speciality-wise admission cut-offs.
What are the tie-breaking rules for NEET PG scores?
If two people have the same score, the NBEMS rules for breaking ties in NEET PG apply. Candidates are ranked based on higher marks in specific exam sections (as notified for that year), followed by a greater number of correct responses, fewer negative responses, and finally, higher age. The final order is published in the official merit list.
What are the factors that determine cut off for NEET PG?
The factors determining the NEET PG cut-off include the overall difficulty level of the examination, total number of applicants, availability of government and private PG seats, reservation policies, previous years’ cut-off trends, and candidate preferences for high-demand specialisations. Policy changes and unfilled seats can also significantly influence cut-off levels.
Conclusion
Understanding the NEET PG branch-wise cut-off is of utmost importance for a medical aspirant getting a competitive PG seat. Knowing speciality trends, expected scores, and influencing factors allows you to make an informed decision while preparing and during counselling.
With DocTutorials, you get guidance from experts, crisp video lectures, clinical Qbank flashcards, and mindmaps to help you score better than your competition.
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Preparing for the NEET PG 2026 can be an overwhelming journey because of its vast syllabus and the pressure to…
NEET PG 2026 Latest News: Revised Marks, Questions & Time Bound Sections, Seat Matrix & State Quota Announcements
There have been crucial updates regarding the upcoming NEET PG 2026 cycle. With the National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS) officially scheduling the exam for August 30, 2026, the focus has shifted away from previous Supreme Court hearings concerning last year’s unfilled seats. The exam results and cut-off data are expected by September 30, 2026, which will set the timeline for the new counselling schedule, including Round 1, Round 2, Mop-Up, and Stray Vacancy rounds.
Because individual states will issue their own unique schedules and bond policies shortly after, students cannot rely solely on Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) updates; they must also proactively track state-level notifications for eligibility, fees, and documentation requirements. Read below to know the latest updates about the NEET PG 2026 exam and impending counselling.
NEET PG 2026 City Intimation Slip Released
The National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS) officially activated the NEET PG 2026 City Intimation Link on August 11, 2026. Candidates can now check their allotted exam center locations to easily plan their travel and accommodation ahead of the exam. Log in with your registration credentials to access your slip, and make sure to save a copy for future reference.
Need help finding your exam center? Watch the step-by-step video guide below to check your NEET PG test city allotment.
NEET PG 2026: Key Highlights & Pattern Changes
1. Reduction in Total Questions
180 Questions: The paper now consists of 180 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
720 Total Marks: The total marks are now 720 (+4 for correct answers, -1 for wrong answers, 0 for unattempted).
More Time Per Question: The total duration of the exam remains the same as 3 hours 30 minutes (210 minutes). With fewer questions, candidates get ~70 seconds per question (up from 63 seconds).
2. Introduction of 5 Time-Bound Sections
5 Sections: The exam is divided into 5 distinct sections of 36 questions each.
42 Minutes Per Section: Each section is individually timed. Once the 42-minute timer for a section expires, the portal automatically moves to the next section.
No Backtracking: Candidates cannot revisit or modify answers in a previous section after its allotted time ends.
3. State-Level Test Center Selection
Instead of choosing specific test cities on a first-come, first-served basis, candidates select three preferred states during registration.
Test city allotment within the selected states is assigned by NBEMS.
NEET PG 2026 Revised Exam Pattern
Exam Feature
NEET PG 2026 Details
Total Questions
180 Questions
Total Marks
720 Marks
Exam Duration
3 Hours 30 Minutes (210 mins)
Sectional Breakdown
5 sections (36 questions each)
Time Per Section
42 minutes per section
Backtracking
Restricted to the currently active section only
Marking Scheme
+4 (Correct) / -1 (Incorrect) / 0 (Unattempted)
Exam Date & Shift
August 30, 2026 (Single Shift)
Note: The introduction of 5 strict, time-bound sections requires a shift in exam strategy. Because the portal automatically locks a section once its 42-minute timer expires, time-management must focus on completing each 36-question block within its specific window. You will not be able to revisit or modify answers in a previous section once you move forward.
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What to Expect in the NEET PG 2026 Seat Matrix?
Because the NEET PG 2026 exam is scheduled for August 30, the official counselling seat matrix will not be released by the Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) until Round 1 begins later this year. However, aspirants have a major advantage: the total number of PG medical seats across India has seen a massive increase, now expected to cross 70,000 to 85,000 seats overall, encompassing both government and private medical colleges.
When Round 2 eventually commences, the MCC will publish a highly anticipated updated seat matrix. Since NEET PG 2026 counselling has not yet begun, the specific “Clear Vacancies” and “Virtual Vacancies” for Round 2 do not exist yet. However, the National Medical Commission (NMC) has released the official baseline seat data for the upcoming academic cycle.
Here’s a clean breakdown of the expected seat matrix.
Type of Seat
Number of Seats
Previous Academic Cycle Seats
49,976
Newly Added Seats (NMC 2026 Approval)
8,424
Total Approved MD/MS Seats
58,400
Estimated Total Pool (Including DNB & Diploma)
85,000+
Note: The official counselling seat matrix (which will include exact clear and virtual vacancies) will only be published by the MCC on mcc.nic.in once Round 1 of the 2026 counselling process officially begins.
What Are Virtual Vacancies?
Virtual vacancies often cause confusion, but they are actually a highly beneficial part of the counselling system. They represent seats held by Round 1 candidates who want a better option in Round 2.
Think of it like requesting a seat upgrade on a flight. If a candidate gets their requested upgrade in Round 2, they vacate their original seat, and it instantly becomes a real opening for someone else. If they don’t get the upgrade, they safely keep their original seat, and no one else gets it.
This means that the actual availability of seats in Round 2 is often much higher than what the “Clear Vacancies” suggest. Because many candidates upgrade, a large portion of virtual seats will convert into real openings, offering you better opportunities as the rounds progress.
Before each round of counselling starts, candidates should note that MCC will upload an internal list of increased seats on the Intra MCC portal for institute verification, ensuring transparency before choice-filling begins.
What are the NEET PG 2026 State Quota Counselling Updates?
With the NEET PG 2026 exam officially scheduled for August 30, state-level authorities are already gearing up for their respective counselling processes, even though actual registration will not begin until after the results are declared in late September. While the Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) is responsible for handling the 50% All India Quota, the remaining 50% of seats come under the state quota, and the process is conducted entirely at the state level.
Although active state-level choice filling has not yet begun, early preparations are a major part of the latest news on NEET PG. Many states are proactively outlining their policies in advance of the expected October 2026 counselling kickoff. To mention a few examples, states like Kerala, Karnataka, and Maharashtra have already begun updating their mandatory bond policies, rural service durations, and penalty structures for the 2026 academic cycle. Thus, students from these states are supposed to stay updated on the specific service requirements and document rules well before the portals open.
Since all states set their own rules, one cannot depend entirely on the updates provided by MCC. Students must continuously check the counselling websites of their respective state Directorate of Medical Education (DME) for upcoming timelines, fees, eligibility criteria, and required documents. A state may issue critical information regarding domicile updates or registration changes at any time, and hence, being alert becomes necessary.
Therefore, tracking both MCC announcements and state-specific notifications simultaneously is the only way to avoid last-minute surprises during the NEET PG 2026 admissions.
FAQs about NEET PG 2026 Latest News
When will the NEET PG 2026 Counselling Dates be announced?
With the NEET PG 2026 exam officially scheduled for August 30, 2026, and results expected by September 30, the Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) is anticipated to release the official counselling schedule in October 2026.
How many rounds of counselling are there in NEET PG 2026?
The MCC conducts four rounds of counselling for the All-India Quota (AIQ): Round 1, Round 2, Round 3, and an Online Stray Vacancy Round.
Who is eligible for NEET PG 2026 counselling?
To be eligible, candidates must:
Qualify the NEET PG 2026 exam.
Possess a valid MBBS degree.
Complete their mandatory one-year rotatory internship on or before the cutoff date.
Be registered with the National Medical Commission (NMC) or a State Medical Council.
Will NEET PG 2026 include state quota seats?
Yes. 50% of seats fall under the state quota. Admissions are carried out by respective state authorities strictly based on NEET PG 2026 merit.
When will MCC release the NEET PG 2026 Round 2 seat allotment results? Because the NEET PG 2026 exam takes place on August 30, Round 2 counselling and its allotment results will occur later in the year, likely around November or December 2026.
What happens if a candidate fails to report after an MCC Round 2 seat allotment?
If a student chooses not to report or join their allotted Round 2 seat, their security deposit is forfeited. However, they may still be eligible to participate in Round 3 by registering afresh and paying a new security deposit.
What percentage of seats are reserved in a government medical college?
For postgraduate courses in government medical colleges, 50% of the seats are allotted under the All-India Quota (AIQ), while the remaining 50% are reserved for the State Quota.
Can a candidate apply for the state quota in more than one state?
Generally, candidates are allowed to apply for the state quota only in the specific state where they hold domicile status or fulfill local residency/MBBS completion conditions. Claiming state quota benefits in multiple states simultaneously can lead to disqualification.
Conclusion
With the NEET PG 2026 exam fast approaching on August 30, candidates are gearing up for a newly structured test featuring 180 questions across 5 time-bound sections. While all eyes remain on the upcoming exam and the subsequent MCC and state quota counselling schedules, the ongoing Supreme Court developments regarding answer-key transparency also continue to be a crucial factor for aspirants.
Keep a close eye on official NBEMS, MCC, and state counselling portals to ensure you don’t miss a single crucial update on exam guidelines, seat matrices, or admission schedules.
For comprehensive guidance, DocTutorials is here to be your ideal study partner. We offer crisp videos, a clinical Qbank tailored to the latest pattern, exam-focused notes, flashcards, and mind maps, ensuring you approach the NEET PG 2026 exam fully prepared and without a doubt.
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